ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam

Questions 80

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client who has a new prescription for lithium is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Drinking at least 2 liters of water daily is crucial for clients taking lithium to prevent dehydration and lithium toxicity. Lithium is a salt, so it's important for clients to maintain adequate hydration. Option A is incorrect because lithium does not interact with tyramine-containing foods. Option B is incorrect because increasing salt intake is not necessary and can actually exacerbate lithium toxicity. Option D is incorrect because avoiding caffeinated beverages is not a priority teaching point for clients taking lithium.

Question 2 of 5

A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication history of a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional identify as a contraindication for this client?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Clopidogrel. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that increases the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin. Acetaminophen (choice A) and metoprolol (choice D) do not have significant interactions with warfarin. Ibuprofen (choice B) is an NSAID that can also increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin, but clopidogrel is a more significant contraindication due to its antiplatelet effects. Therefore, healthcare professionals should be cautious when combining warfarin with clopidogrel due to the increased risk of bleeding compared to other options.

Question 3 of 5

A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, monitoring potassium levels is crucial due to the drug's potential to cause hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes potassium excretion in the urine, leading to a risk of low potassium levels. Monitoring potassium levels helps in detecting and preventing hypokalemia, which can result in adverse effects like cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium, calcium, and hemoglobin levels are usually not directly affected by furosemide, making them less pertinent for monitoring in this specific scenario.

Question 4 of 5

A client with heart failure is receiving a continuous IV infusion of milrinone. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Measuring the client's intake and output every 2 hours is essential when caring for a client receiving a continuous IV infusion of milrinone. Milrinone is a medication that affects fluid balance, and monitoring intake and output helps assess the client's response to the medication. Continuous monitoring of blood pressure may not be necessary unless there is a specific indication. While weighing the client daily is important for overall assessment, measuring intake and output more frequently provides more real-time data for fluid balance evaluation. Monitoring the infusion site is crucial for detecting infiltration but is not directly related to managing fluid balance in this situation.

Question 5 of 5

A client is receiving furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A heart rate of 68/min is lower than expected and should be reported as it may indicate digoxin toxicity. Choices A, C, and D are within normal limits for a client receiving furosemide for heart failure and do not require immediate reporting. Weight loss may be expected due to diuretic therapy, a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L is within the normal range, and a urine output of 60 mL/hr indicates adequate renal perfusion.

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