ATI Exit Exam 2024

Questions 82

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI Exit Exam 2024 Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client requires seclusion to prevent harm to others on the unit. What action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to document the client's behavior prior to being placed in seclusion. Documenting the behavior is crucial as it ensures that the decision to use seclusion is based on appropriate justifications and helps in monitoring the client's progress and response to the intervention. Offering fluids every 2 hours (Choice A) is not directly related to the need for seclusion. Discussing the client's behavior prior to seclusion (Choice C) may not be appropriate at the moment when immediate action is required to prevent harm. Assessing the client's behavior every hour (Choice D) is important but not as immediate as documenting the behavior prior to seclusion.

Question 2 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In clients with cirrhosis, the liver is unable to produce clotting factors efficiently, leading to impaired clotting function. Therefore, an increased prothrombin time is expected in cirrhosis. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Decreased bilirubin levels are not typically seen in cirrhosis; prothrombin time is usually increased, not decreased; and albumin levels are often decreased in cirrhosis due to reduced synthetic liver function.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is assessing a client who is 48 hours postoperative following a hip replacement. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: An elevated WBC count 48 hours postoperatively may indicate an infection and should be reported to the provider. Choice A, a heart rate of 90/min, is within normal limits and not a concerning finding postoperatively. Choice C, urinary output of 75 mL in the past 4 hours, may indicate decreased renal perfusion, but an elevated WBC count is a more urgent finding. Choice D, a temperature of 37.8�C (100�F), which is slightly elevated, could be indicative of the body's normal response to surgery and is not as alarming as an elevated WBC count.

Question 4 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 5.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is elevated and should be monitored in clients taking spironolactone, which is a potassium-sparing medication. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial as spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by spironolactone. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on monitoring the potassium levels in this scenario.

Question 5 of 5

A client who practices Orthodox Judaism informs the nurse that he cannot eat certain foods during the Passover holiday. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: During the Passover holiday, individuals practicing Orthodox Judaism adhere to specific dietary restrictions, which include consuming unleavened bread. Providing unleavened bread aligns with the client's religious beliefs and dietary requirements. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Serving chicken with cream sauce, avoiding fish with fins and scales, and avoiding foods containing lamb are not directly related to the dietary restrictions observed during the Passover holiday in Orthodox Judaism.

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