ATI RN Exit Exam 2023

Questions 73

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI RN Exit Exam 2023 Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client receiving radiation therapy for breast cancer may experience which of the following side effects that the nurse should monitor for?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: During radiation therapy for breast cancer, one common side effect is skin irritation due to the impact of radiation on the skin cells. This side effect should be closely monitored by the nurse. Fatigue may also occur as a side effect of radiation therapy, but skin irritation is more specific to the treatment area and is a priority in this case. Nausea and weight gain are not typically associated with radiation therapy for breast cancer, making them incorrect choices.

Question 2 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client who has schizophrenia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inability to identify common objects. Clients with schizophrenia often experience cognitive deficits, such as difficulty in identifying common objects. This can be attributed to impairments in perception and cognition. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with schizophrenia. Decreased level of consciousness is more indicative of conditions like head injuries or metabolic disturbances. Preoccupation with somatic disturbances is commonly seen in somatic symptom disorders, not schizophrenia. Poor problem-solving ability is a characteristic of conditions affecting executive functioning like dementia, rather than schizophrenia.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is reviewing the medication record of a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following medications should the nurse question?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which may lead to hyperkalemia in clients with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, its use should be questioned in this population. Choice A, Calcium carbonate, is commonly used to manage phosphate levels in chronic kidney disease. Choice B, Furosemide, is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but should be used with caution in kidney disease. Choice C, Epoetin alfa, is a medication used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with chronic kidney disease and anemia.

Question 4 of 5

What is the best intervention for a patient experiencing respiratory distress?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the best intervention for a patient experiencing respiratory distress because it helps improve oxygenation. Oxygen therapy is the initial and priority intervention to ensure an adequate oxygen supply to the body tissues. Administering bronchodilators (Choice B) may be appropriate for specific respiratory conditions like asthma or COPD but is not the first-line intervention in all cases of respiratory distress. Administering IV fluids (Choice C) is not a standard intervention for respiratory distress unless there is an underlying cause like dehydration. Repositioning the patient (Choice D) can aid in optimizing ventilation but is not the primary intervention for respiratory distress.

Question 5 of 5

Which electrolyte imbalance is a common concern in patients receiving loop diuretics?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia (Choice C). Loop diuretics can lead to potassium loss in the urine, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a common concern with loop diuretic therapy and necessitates regular monitoring. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with loop diuretics but with conditions like renal failure. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is more common with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a typical concern with loop diuretic use.

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