ATI RN
Pathophysiology Practice Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client presents to the emergency department with complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath. The client's ECG shows ST-segment elevation. What is the priority nursing intervention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In a client presenting with chest pain, shortness of breath, and ST-segment elevation on ECG, the priority nursing intervention is to prepare the client for emergent coronary angiography. This procedure is crucial in diagnosing and treating acute myocardial infarction promptly. Administering aspirin (Choice A) is important but not the priority over emergent coronary angiography. Administering oxygen therapy (Choice C) is supportive but does not address the underlying cause of the ST-segment elevation. Initiating CPR (Choice D) is not the priority in this scenario as the client is stable and conscious.
Question 2 of 5
When a healthcare professional is reviewing lab results and notices that the erythrocytes contain an abnormally low concentration of hemoglobin, the healthcare professional calls these erythrocytes:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Erythrocytes with an abnormally low concentration of hemoglobin are called hypochromic. Hyperchromic refers to erythrocytes with an abnormally high concentration of hemoglobin. Macrocytic indicates larger than normal red blood cells, while microcytic refers to smaller than normal red blood cells. Therefore, in this scenario, the correct term is hypochromic.
Question 3 of 5
A male patient is concerned about the risk of prostate cancer while receiving finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What should the nurse explain about this risk?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer. Studies have demonstrated that finasteride can reduce the incidence of prostate cancer. However, it is still recommended to have regular screening to monitor for any potential issues. Choice B is incorrect as finasteride has shown to have a positive effect on reducing prostate cancer risk. Choice C is inaccurate because finasteride decreases, not increases, the risk of prostate cancer. Choice D is incorrect as regular screening is still necessary despite the risk reduction associated with finasteride.
Question 4 of 5
A person is given an attenuated antigen as a vaccine. When the person asks what was given in the vaccine, how should the nurse respond? The antigen is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An attenuated antigen used in a vaccine is alive but less infectious, aiming to stimulate an immune response. Choice B is incorrect because an attenuated antigen is not highly infectious. Choice C is incorrect as the antigen is intentionally altered to be less infectious. Choice D is incorrect as an attenuated antigen is not infectious.
Question 5 of 5
A male patient is receiving androgen therapy for hypogonadism. What laboratory tests should the nurse monitor during this therapy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: During androgen therapy for hypogonadism, it is important to monitor liver function tests. Androgens can affect the liver, potentially leading to liver dysfunction. Monitoring liver function tests helps in early detection of any liver abnormalities. Kidney function tests (Choice B) are not typically affected by androgen therapy. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) levels (Choice C) may be monitored for conditions like prostate cancer, but it is not directly related to androgen therapy for hypogonadism. A complete blood count (CBC) (Choice D) may not show specific changes related to androgen therapy for hypogonadism.
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