Nursing Process Questions

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bence jones protein in the urine. In multiple myeloma, abnormal plasma cells produce excess monoclonal immunoglobulins, including Bence Jones proteins, which can be detected in the urine. This is a hallmark finding in multiple myeloma diagnosis. A: Incorrect. Serum creatinine levels are typically not affected in multiple myeloma. C: Incorrect. Hypercalcemia, not hypocalcemia, is commonly seen in multiple myeloma due to bone destruction. D: Incorrect. Multiple myeloma often presents with high serum protein levels, not low levels.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prevent clot formation. Heparin is an anticoagulant that inhibits the formation of blood clots. In DIC (Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation), there is excessive clotting throughout the body, leading to organ damage. By administering heparin, we aim to prevent further clot formation and reduce the risk of complications. Choice B is incorrect because heparin does not increase clot formation; it works to inhibit clotting. Choice C is incorrect as heparin does not directly increase blood flow to target organs. Choice D is also incorrect as heparin does not decrease blood flow to target organs; its primary role is anticoagulation.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because it addresses the importance of notifying the physician about a painless lump at the top of the chest incision, which could indicate a serious complication like a seroma or hematoma. This is crucial for early detection and intervention. A is incorrect because showers are generally allowed after cardiac surgery as long as the incisions are kept clean and dry. C is incorrect because support hose or elastic stockings are typically recommended to be worn during the day and removed at night to prevent swelling and promote circulation. D is incorrect because resuming sexual relations after cardiac surgery should be based on individual recovery and should be discussed with the healthcare provider, rather than a standard timeframe.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Hormonal imbalances are the primary cause of BPH in aging males. As men age, testosterone levels decrease and estrogen levels may increase relative to testosterone, leading to prostate gland growth. This is why hormonal imbalances are more likely the cause of BPH in older males. Explanation of other choices: A: Chronic infection of the urinary tract does not directly cause BPH, although it can lead to similar symptoms such as urinary frequency and urgency. B: Chronic cigarette smoking is not a direct cause of BPH, although it can contribute to overall prostate health and exacerbate symptoms. D: Chronic obstruction of the bladder due to stone is a separate condition from BPH, although it can cause similar urinary symptoms.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anemia. Anemia is a common condition characterized by a decrease in red blood cells or hemoglobin levels, leading to symptoms like fatigue and weakness. It is often suspected based on symptoms such as pale skin and shortness of breath. Rheumatic arthritis (B) is a type of arthritis affecting joints, not related to the blood. Leukemia (C) is a type of cancer affecting the blood and bone marrow. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) (D) is an autoimmune disease that can affect various organs, not specifically related to blood cell levels. Therefore, based on the symptoms described, anemia is the most likely condition to be suspected.