ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test

Questions 63

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client is receiving warfarin therapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of warfarin?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Epistaxis, or nosebleeds, can be an indication of excessive anticoagulation while on warfarin therapy. Warfarin is a blood thinner that helps prevent blood clots. Epistaxis can occur as a result of the blood-thinning effects of warfarin, leading to increased bleeding tendencies, including nosebleeds. Nausea, diarrhea, and dyspepsia are not typically associated with warfarin therapy; therefore, they are not the adverse effects the nurse should identify in a client receiving warfarin.

Question 2 of 5

What is an expected outcome for Lithium use in patients with bipolar disorder?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased incidence of acute manic episodes. Lithium is commonly used to treat bipolar disorder by helping to stabilize mood and reduce the intensity and frequency of manic episodes. This leads to better overall management of the disorder. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because lithium is not known to reduce the risk of myocardial infarction, GI ulcers, or respiratory distress in patients with bipolar disorder.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse in a clinic is caring for a group of clients. The nurse should contact the provider about a potential contraindication to a medication for which of the following clients? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Prednisone, a glucocorticoid, should not be taken by a client who has a possible systemic fungal infection as it can worsen the infection. This combination can suppress the immune response, allowing the fungal infection to proliferate. Therefore, the nurse should contact the provider regarding this potential contraindication to medication. The other options do not present a contraindication related to the medication interactions described in the question.

Question 4 of 5

A client has a prescription for Timolol eye drops for the treatment of glaucoma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to apply gentle pressure to the nasolacrimal duct for 30 to 60 seconds after application. This technique helps prevent systemic absorption of the medication, reducing the risk of systemic side effects. By applying pressure, the drainage of the medication into the bloodstream through the nasolacrimal duct is minimized, enhancing the drug's local ocular effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blinking immediately after instilling the drops, keeping eyes closed for 5 minutes, and administering the drops directly onto the cornea are not recommended practices for administering Timolol eye drops.

Question 5 of 5

A client has a new prescription for Efavirenz, an NNRTI. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction is to take Efavirenz at bedtime to prevent drowsiness and manage central nervous system side effects like dizziness and vivid dreams. While it is important to take the medication at the same time daily for consistent blood levels, the emphasis should be on bedtime to minimize the impact of these side effects. Choices B and C suggesting taking the medication with milk or juice are incorrect and not relevant to optimizing Efavirenz therapy.

Similar Questions

Join Our Community Today!

Join Over 10,000+ nursing students using Nurselytic. Access Comprehensive study Guides curriculum for ATI-RN and 3000+ practice questions to help you pass your ATI-RN exam.

Call to Action Image