ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Flumazenil is a competitive benzodiazepine antagonist that can reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines like Diazepam. In cases of oversedation, administering Flumazenil can help counteract the excessive sedation and other effects of Diazepam, thereby promoting the client's recovery and preventing potential complications.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Before starting Calcitonin-salmon, it is important to assess for any potential allergies as anaphylaxis can occur. A skin test is usually conducted to determine if the client is allergic to the medication. The nurse should also inquire about any previous allergies to fish, as Calcitonin-salmon is derived from salmon.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Alcohol. Clients should avoid alcohol while taking metronidazole to prevent a disulfiram-like reaction, which can cause symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, headache, and flushing. It is important to educate clients on the potential interactions between metronidazole and alcohol to ensure the effectiveness of the medication and prevent adverse reactions.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it can cause potassium retention, leading to elevated potassium levels. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is above the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and indicates hyperkalemia, which can be a serious condition. Therefore, this finding should be promptly reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management to prevent potential complications.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker known to cause peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client for swelling, particularly in the lower extremities, as it can indicate the development of this side effect.