ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client is experiencing an acute exacerbation of asthma. Which medication should the nurse administer first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: During an acute exacerbation of asthma, the priority is to administer a short-acting beta2-agonist like Albuterol (Proventil) first. Albuterol acts quickly to dilate the airways and provide immediate relief of bronchospasm. Ipratropium (Atrovent) is an anticholinergic that can be used as an adjunct therapy. Salmeterol (Serevent) is a long-acting beta2-agonist intended for maintenance therapy, not for acute exacerbations. Fluticasone (Flovent) is a corticosteroid used for long-term asthma control and should not be the initial medication given during an acute exacerbation.
Question 2 of 5
A client with a new tracheostomy is being seen in the oncology clinic. What finding by the nurse best indicates that goals for the nursing diagnosis Impaired Self-Esteem are being met?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The client joining a book club that meets outside the home and requires him or her to go out in public is the best indicator that goals for Impaired Self-Esteem are being met. This social activity indicates an improvement in self-confidence and willingness to engage with others, which are essential aspects of self-esteem. The other choices, while positive, do not directly address self-esteem concerns related to social interaction and confidence.
Question 3 of 5
A client with asthma presents with bilateral wheezing, decreased pulse oxygen saturation, and suprasternal retraction on inhalation. Which actions should the nurse take? (SATA)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Suprasternal retraction during inhalation suggests the client is using accessory muscles due to difficulty in moving air into the respiratory passages caused by airway narrowing. The presence of bilateral wheezing and decreased pulse oxygen saturation further support airway narrowing. In this situation, immediate intervention is necessary to improve oxygenation. Administering oxygen to maintain saturations above 94% is crucial to support oxygenation. While administering a rescue inhaler may be warranted, the priority in this scenario is ensuring adequate oxygenation to address the respiratory distress.
Question 4 of 5
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which assessment finding requires the nurse to take immediate action?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A decrease in the client's respiratory rate to 10 breaths per minute, while receiving oxygen therapy for COPD, is a concerning finding that may indicate carbon dioxide retention and respiratory depression. This situation requires immediate action to prevent further complications. An oxygen saturation of 90% is within an acceptable range for COPD patients on oxygen therapy. A respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute and reports of shortness of breath are common in clients with COPD and may not necessitate immediate action unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
Question 5 of 5
A client with dyspnea and difficulty climbing stairs is classified as having class III dyspnea. Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Class III dyspnea indicates significant limitations in activity due to shortness of breath. Clients with this level of dyspnea should be encouraged to participate in activities within their tolerance levels. Providing assistance with activities of daily living helps conserve energy for essential tasks while promoting independence. Oxygen therapy is only necessary if hypoxia is present, and complete bedrest is generally not recommended for clients with dyspnea unless specifically indicated.
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