Nursing Process 1 Test Questions

Questions 68

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Nursing Process 1 Test Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client is being treated for acute pyelonephritis and will undergo laboratory tests. These tests are expected to help determine the clients BUN, creatinine, and serum electrolyte levels. Why should the nurse evaluate these test results?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: To determine clients response to therapy. Evaluating BUN, creatinine, and serum electrolyte levels in a client being treated for acute pyelonephritis helps the nurse assess the effectiveness of the therapy. Changes in these levels indicate how well the kidneys are functioning and how the client is responding to treatment. Monitoring these parameters allows for adjustments in therapy if needed. Incorrect choices: A: To determine the severity of the disorder - While these tests can provide information about the severity of kidney dysfunction, the primary focus is on monitoring the response to therapy. B: To identify signs of fluid retention - While BUN and creatinine levels can indirectly indicate fluid status, the main purpose of evaluating these tests is to assess therapy response. C: To determine the location of discomfort - These tests do not provide information about the location of discomfort but rather focus on kidney function and response to treatment.

Question 2 of 5

Wilma was shocked to see that the Tracheostomy was dislodged. Both the inner and outer cannulas was removed and left hanging on James� neck. What are the 2 equipment�s at james� bedside that could help Wilma deal with this situation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: New set of tracheostomy tubes and Oxygen tank. Rationale: 1. New set of tracheostomy tubes: Essential for reinserting the cannulas to secure the airway. 2. Oxygen tank: To ensure James has a stable oxygen supply while the tracheostomy tubes are being reinserted. Summary of incorrect choices: B: Theophylline and Epinephrine - These medications are not directly related to managing a dislodged tracheostomy. C: Obturator and Kelly clamp - While these are useful tools for tracheostomy care, they are not the immediate equipment needed in this emergency situation. D: Sterile saline dressing - This is not relevant for a dislodged tracheostomy; the priority is securing the airway.

Question 3 of 5

A client with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the metabolic unit. The primary goal for this admission is education. Which of the following goals should the nurse incorporate into her teaching plan?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, as exercise and a weight reduction diet are essential components in managing type 2 diabetes. Exercise helps lower blood glucose levels and improves insulin sensitivity. Weight reduction reduces insulin resistance. Choice A is incorrect because maintaining blood glucose levels between 180-200mg/dl is too high and can lead to complications. Choice B is incorrect as complete smoking cessation is crucial for overall health and diabetes management. Choice C is incorrect because eye examinations should be done annually, not every 2 years, to monitor for diabetic retinopathy. In summary, choice D is the best option as it directly addresses the management of type 2 diabetes.

Question 4 of 5

As the surgical incision is closed, who are the personnel in-charge in counting the needles, sponges, and instruments?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C - the circulating and scrub nurse first assistant. The circulating nurse is responsible for counting needles, sponges, and instruments during the closing of the surgical incision to ensure nothing is left inside the patient. The scrub nurse first assistant also plays a crucial role in this process by assisting in the counting and keeping track of the items used during the procedure. The other choices are incorrect because the surgeon and anesthesiologist (A) are not typically involved in counting items during the surgical closure, the surgeon and the registered (B) may not have the necessary training for accurate counting, and the anesthesiologist and anesthetist (D) are not directly involved in the surgical closing process.

Question 5 of 5

Which of the ff symptoms is associated with AIDS related distal sensory polyneuropathy (DSP)?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Abnormal sensations such as burning and numbness. In AIDS-related DSP, damage to nerves causes abnormal sensations like burning and numbness. This is due to the progressive nerve damage affecting sensory functions. Staggering gait and muscle incoordination (A) are more common in conditions affecting motor nerves. Delusional thinking (C) is not a symptom of DSP. Incontinence (D) is not typically associated with DSP but may happen in more advanced stages due to loss of sensation.

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