ATI RN
Nursing Process 1 Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client is being treated for acute pyelonephritis and will undergo laboratory tests. These tests are expected to help determine the clients BUN, creatinine, and serum electrolyte levels. Why should the nurse evaluate these test results?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: To determine clients response to therapy. Evaluating BUN, creatinine, and serum electrolyte levels in a client being treated for acute pyelonephritis helps the nurse assess the effectiveness of the therapy. Changes in these levels indicate how well the kidneys are functioning and how the client is responding to treatment. Monitoring these parameters allows for adjustments in therapy if needed. Incorrect choices: A: To determine the severity of the disorder - While these tests can provide information about the severity of kidney dysfunction, the primary focus is on monitoring the response to therapy. B: To identify signs of fluid retention - While BUN and creatinine levels can indirectly indicate fluid status, the main purpose of evaluating these tests is to assess therapy response. C: To determine the location of discomfort - These tests do not provide information about the location of discomfort but rather focus on kidney function and response to treatment.
Question 2 of 5
A new nurse asks the preceptor to describe the primary purpose of evaluation. Which statement made by the nursing preceptor is most accurate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: �Nurses use evaluation to determine the effectiveness of nursing care.� Evaluation in nursing is essential to assess the outcomes of nursing interventions and determine the effectiveness of the care provided. It helps in identifying areas for improvement, making informed decisions, and ensuring quality patient care. Choice A is incorrect because evaluation is not solely about checking completion of tasks but rather assessing the impact of those interventions on patient outcomes. Choice B is incorrect as evaluation is not related to staffing decisions but focuses on assessing the quality of care delivery. Choice D is incorrect as evaluation is not about eliminating paperwork but rather about improving care outcomes.
Question 3 of 5
Antibodies are made of which of the following types of substances?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Protein. Antibodies are a type of protein produced by the immune system to help identify and neutralize pathogens like bacteria and viruses. Proteins are composed of amino acids, which are the building blocks of proteins. Antibodies have a specific structure that allows them to bind to specific antigens. Fat (A), Sugar (C), and Carbohydrates (D) are not primary components of antibodies and do not play a significant role in their structure or function.
Question 4 of 5
The patient develops a low-grade fever 18 hours post-operatively and has diminished breath sounds. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take to prevent complications? i.Administer antibiotics iv.Decrease fluid intake ii.Encourage coughing and deepbreathing v.Ambulate patient as ordered iii.Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 2 and 5. Diminished breath sounds indicate possible atelectasis or pneumonia post-operatively, making coughing and deep breathing (2) and ambulation (5) crucial to prevent complications. Decreasing fluid intake (iv) can lead to dehydration, worsening the situation. Administering antibiotics (i) without further assessment may not be necessary at this point. Acetaminophen (iii) can help with fever but does not address the underlying respiratory issue.
Question 5 of 5
A client, age 42, visits the gynecologist. After examining her, the physician suspects cervical cancer. The nurse reviews the client�s history for risk factors for this disease. Which history finding is a risk factor for cervical cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection at age 32. HPV is a known risk factor for cervical cancer as it can lead to cellular changes in the cervix. Here's the rationale: 1. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause abnormal cell growth in the cervix. 2. Persistent HPV infection is a major risk factor for developing cervical cancer. 3. Age 32 is within the typical age range for HPV infection and the development of cervical cancer. 4. Choices A, B, and C are unrelated to the primary risk factor for cervical cancer, which is HPV infection.
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