ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client is being assessed in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oliguria is a sign of decreased cardiac output. Decreased cardiac output can lead to poor renal perfusion, resulting in decreased urine output (oliguria). This requires immediate intervention to improve cardiac function and perfusion. Shivering (Choice A) is a response to cold stress and does not directly indicate decreased cardiac output. Bradypnea (Choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is more indicative of respiratory issues rather than decreased cardiac output. Constricted pupils (Choice D) are associated with the parasympathetic nervous system response and not directly related to cardiac output.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is admitting a client who is in labor and at 38 wks of gestation to the maternal newborn unit. The client has a history of herpes simplex virus 2. Which of the following questions is most appropriate for the nurse to ask the client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate question for the nurse to ask the client in this situation is whether they have any active lesions due to the history of herpes simplex virus. This is crucial to assess the risk of transmission to the newborn during labor. Option A is not the priority in this case as the focus is on the client's history of herpes simplex virus. Option B is important but does not directly relate to the risk of herpes simplex virus transmission. Option D is unrelated to the client's condition and the current situation.
Question 3 of 5
A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum creatinine level of 2.8 mg/dL indicates impaired kidney function and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Elevated serum creatinine levels are indicative of decreased kidney function and potential progression of chronic kidney disease. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not signify immediate concerns related to kidney disease. Urine output of 80 mL/hr is appropriate, a blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg is considered prehypertensive but not acutely concerning, and a heart rate of 72/min falls within the normal range.
Question 4 of 5
How should a healthcare professional care for a patient with a central line?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When caring for a patient with a central line, monitoring for infection is crucial. This is because central lines can introduce bacteria into the bloodstream, leading to serious infections. While flushing the line daily and changing the dressing weekly are important aspects of central line care, monitoring for infection takes precedence. Infections can occur rapidly and have severe consequences, so early detection through vigilant monitoring is key. Replacing the central line every week is not a standard practice and should only be done when clinically indicated, such as in cases of infection or malfunction.
Question 5 of 5
A client is preparing advance directives. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of advance directives?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'I have the right to refuse treatment.' This statement shows an understanding of advance directives because they allow individuals to specify their treatment preferences in advance, including the right to refuse treatment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate as individuals can update or change their advance directives at any time. Choice B is incorrect because while a doctor may discuss advance directives with the client, approval is not required for the directives to be valid. Choice C is also incorrect as a witness is typically required to verify the client's signature, not the other way around.
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