ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client in active labor requests pain management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During active labor, nonpharmacologic comfort measures like placing the client in a warm shower are effective for pain relief. Ondansetron (Choice A) is an antiemetic and not used for pain management during labor. Applying fundal pressure (Choice C) can cause harm and is not recommended due to the risk of uterine rupture. Assisting the client to a supine position (Choice D) is not ideal in labor as it can decrease blood flow to the placenta and is associated with increased maternal complications.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a newly admitted client who is experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In a client experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury, the priority action for the nurse is to administer 100% humidified oxygen. This is crucial to maintain the airway and address respiratory distress, which takes precedence over obtaining an ECG, collecting blood for ABG analysis, or inserting an IV catheter. Providing oxygen therapy is essential in ensuring the client's oxygenation and respiratory function are optimized in this emergency situation.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing acute pain. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis, which is excessive sweating, is a common manifestation of acute pain caused by increased sympathetic nervous system activity. This response is the body's way of trying to regulate body temperature during the stress response. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypertension (Choice A) and tachycardia (not bradycardia as in Choice B) are more likely responses to acute pain due to sympathetic nervous system activation. Piloerection (Choice D), also known as goosebumps, is not a typical manifestation of acute pain.
Question 4 of 5
A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client with a prescription for digoxin. Which result requires withholding the medication?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A low potassium level (3.1 mEq/L) can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Hypokalemia can potentiate the effects of digoxin on the heart, leading to serious dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not indicate a need to withhold digoxin.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is planning to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which of the following should the nurse do to prevent an adverse transfusion reaction?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to verify the client's blood type with the provider's prescription. This is crucial to prevent an adverse transfusion reaction due to incompatibility. Ensuring the blood type matches before starting the transfusion is a standard safety practice. Option B, ensuring client consent, is important but not directly related to preventing a transfusion reaction. Option C, administering a diuretic, is unnecessary and can be harmful in this context. Option D, checking the client's temperature, is important for general assessment but not specifically focused on preventing a transfusion reaction.
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