ATI RN
Nursing Process Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client has an abnormal result on a Papanicolaou test. After admitting that she read her chart while the nurse was out of the room, the client asks what dysplasia means. Which definition should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because dysplasia refers to the alteration in the size, shape, and organization of differentiated cells. Dysplasia is an abnormal growth or development of cells that can be a precursor to cancer. It is characterized by changes in cell size, shape, and organization, which can be seen in Papanicolaou tests. Choice A is incorrect because it describes an undifferentiated tumor, not dysplasia. Choice B is incorrect as it describes hyperplasia, not dysplasia. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to metaplasia, not dysplasia. In summary, dysplasia is specifically about the abnormal changes in the appearance and organization of differentiated cells, making choice D the correct definition.
Question 2 of 5
What should the client at risk for developing AIDS be advised to do?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because an ELISA test for antibodies is crucial to detect HIV infection early. This test can help diagnose HIV before symptoms appear, allowing for early intervention and treatment. Choice A is important but not specific to HIV prevention. Choice B is irrelevant for HIV prevention. Choice D, while important, should not take precedence over getting tested for HIV.
Question 3 of 5
When caring for Mr. Reyes, the nurse should assess for
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Altered level of consciousness, because it is a critical assessment in determining Mr. Reyes's neurological status and overall well-being. Assessing for altered level of consciousness helps identify potential neurological issues, such as brain injury or stroke, which require immediate intervention. A: Decreased carotid pulses - This is related to cardiovascular assessment, not specific to Mr. Reyes's neurological status. C: Bleeding from oral cavity - While important to assess for, it is not directly related to Mr. Reyes's neurological status. D: Absence of deep tendon-reflexes - This is a specific neurological assessment, but altered level of consciousness takes priority in this scenario.
Question 4 of 5
After assessing the patient and identifying the need for headache relief, the nurse administers acetaminophen for the patient�s headache. Which action by the nurse is priority for this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Reassess the patient's pain level in 30 minutes. This is the priority action as it allows the nurse to evaluate the effectiveness of the acetaminophen in relieving the patient's headache. By reassessing the pain level, the nurse can determine if the medication is working or if further intervention is needed. A: Eliminating the headache from the care plan is not appropriate as the patient's comfort and pain relief should be a priority. B: Directing the nursing assistive personnel to inquire if the headache is relieved is not thorough assessment and does not provide direct evaluation of the patient's pain level. D: Revising the plan of care may be necessary based on the reassessment, but it is not the immediate priority compared to evaluating the patient's response to treatment.
Question 5 of 5
What is the mineral necessary for chemical clotting?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Calcium. Calcium is necessary for the chemical clotting process because it plays a crucial role in the activation of various clotting factors, leading to the formation of a blood clot. Without sufficient calcium, the clotting cascade would not be able to proceed effectively. Iron (choice A) is essential for red blood cell production, not clotting. Potassium (choice B) and Sodium (choice C) are important for various physiological functions but are not directly involved in the clotting process.
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