ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client has a right-sided pneumothorax, and a chest tube is inserted. Which finding indicates that the chest drainage system is functioning correctly?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a chest drainage system, gentle bubbling in the suction chamber indicates proper functioning, showing that the system is connected and working effectively to remove air or fluid from the pleural space. Crepitus around the insertion site (Choice B) suggests subcutaneous emphysema, not chest tube functionality. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber (Choice C) indicates an air leak. Absence of breath sounds on the right side (Choice D) is indicative of the pneumothorax, not the chest tube function.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has meningitis. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as a positive Kernig's sign?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A positive Kernig's sign is identified when a client is unable to extend their leg completely without pain after hip flexion. This finding suggests meningeal irritation. Choices A, C, and D do not describe Kernig's sign. Choice A describes a normal plantar reflex, Choice C refers to coordination deficits, and Choice D indicates neck pain and stiffness, which are not related to Kernig's sign.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is planning care for a client who has acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Administering diuretics is a crucial intervention for a client with acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis as it helps reduce edema by increasing urine output and managing symptoms of glomerulonephritis. Encouraging a high-protein diet (Choice A) is not recommended in this case because it can put additional stress on the kidneys. Increasing fluid intake (Choice B) may worsen edema in these clients. Weighing the client twice a week (Choice D) is important for monitoring fluid balance but is not as immediate and directly beneficial as administering diuretics.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has a heart rate of 40/min. The client is diaphoretic and has chest pain. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Atropine. The client's presentation of bradycardia, diaphoresis, and chest pain indicates reduced cardiac output, requiring intervention to increase the heart rate. Atropine is used to treat bradycardia by blocking cardiac muscarinic receptors, thus inhibiting the parasympathetic nervous system. Lidocaine (Choice A) is used for ventricular arrhythmias, not bradycardia. Adenosine (Choice B) is used for supraventricular tachycardia, not bradycardia. Verapamil (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for certain arrhythmias and hypertension, but not for increasing heart rate in bradycardia.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is teaching a group of assistive personnel (AP) about caring for clients who have Alzheimer's disease. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients with Alzheimer's disease are at risk of wandering and becoming lost. Providing supervision helps prevent them from getting injured or lost. Choice A is incorrect because extensive details may overwhelm clients with Alzheimer's. Choice B is incorrect because limiting activities can lead to boredom and behavioral issues. Choice C is incorrect because speaking calmly and at a moderate volume helps to reduce agitation and confusion in clients with Alzheimer's.
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