RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B

Questions 65

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RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client has a prescription for vancomycin 1g IV intermittent infusion over 30 minutes every 12 hours. What action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to contact the provider for prescription clarification. Administering vancomycin over less than 60 minutes can lead to infusion reactions like hypotension and flushing. Starting the infusion immediately (choice A) is incorrect as it goes against the prescribed rate. Slowing down the infusion rate (choice B) without provider approval can result in underdosing the medication. Checking blood pressure during the infusion (choice D) is important but not the most immediate action needed in this situation.

Question 2 of 5

A client who has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. When taking ferrous sulfate, dark tarry stools can occur as a common side effect due to the iron content in the medication. This is a normal response to the medication and not a cause for concern. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased bruising, reduced infections, and amber-colored urine are not expected side effects of ferrous sulfate.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client who has an ethical conflict about the care she is receiving. Which of the following resources should the nurse consult about resolving the dilemma?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the hospital ethics committee. This committee is specifically designed to address and resolve ethical conflicts in patient care. It comprises professionals from various disciplines who can provide guidance and support in navigating ethical dilemmas. Choice B, the quality improvement committee, focuses on enhancing the quality of care provided but may not be equipped to handle ethical conflicts. Choice C, the chaplain, offers spiritual and emotional support but may not have the expertise to resolve ethical dilemmas. Choice D, the director of nursing, is responsible for nursing operations and may not be the appropriate resource for addressing ethical conflicts.

Question 4 of 5

What is a key component of a comprehensive discharge plan for a patient with heart failure?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The main components of a comprehensive discharge plan for a patient with heart failure include advising on appropriate physical activity and exercise to improve cardiovascular health and overall well-being. While fluid restriction and dietary recommendations are important aspects of heart failure management, advising on physical activity and exercise is crucial for improving cardiac function and quality of life post-discharge. Medication management is also essential but focusing on physical activity is particularly relevant for long-term management and preventing readmissions.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 40 mg IV. Available is furosemide 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: To calculate the mL needed, divide the total dose by the dose per mL. In this case, 40 mg divided by 10 mg/mL equals 4 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 4 mL per dose. Choice A, 2 mL, is incorrect because it would only deliver 20 mg of furosemide, which is half the required dose. Choices B and D are also incorrect as they do not provide the accurate amount needed to achieve the 40 mg dosage.

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