ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium. Instructing the client to avoid foods high in potassium helps prevent hyperkalemia, a potential side effect of spironolactone. Choice A is incorrect because taking spironolactone with a potassium supplement can increase the risk of hyperkalemia. Choice C is not directly related to spironolactone use. Choice D is also incorrect as spironolactone does not need to be taken on an empty stomach.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has tuberculosis and a new prescription for rifampin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rifampin can cause a harmless reddish-orange discoloration of body fluids, including urine. Choice A is not related to rifampin; vision changes are not a common side effect of the medication. Choice C is more relevant to medications that cause photosensitivity reactions, not specifically rifampin. Choice D is incorrect because nausea is a common side effect of rifampin, but it does not warrant immediate discontinuation of the medication.
Question 3 of 5
While caring for a client with an arterial line, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Obtaining arterial blood gases is a crucial nursing action when caring for a client with an arterial line. This procedure helps assess the client's oxygenation status and acid-base balance accurately. Leveling the transducer with the client's phlebotomy site (A) is important for accurate pressure measurements, but it is not the primary action in this scenario. Flushing the arterial line every 8 hours (B) is a routine maintenance procedure and not the immediate priority. Keeping the client's hand elevated above the heart level (D) is a good practice to prevent swelling, but it is not directly related to the arterial line care in this case.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. The FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 minutes. What condition should the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the FHR baseline of 100/min for the past 15 minutes indicates fetal bradycardia, which can be caused by maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus, resulting in fetal bradycardia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia in the fetus rather than bradycardia. Fetal anemia (Choice B) is more likely to manifest as tachycardia due to compensation for decreased oxygen delivery. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) may lead to fetal tachycardia as a sign of fetal distress, not bradycardia.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is teaching at a community health fair about electrical fire prevention. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Use three-pronged grounded plugs.' This is important in preventing electrical fires as it provides a grounded connection, reducing the risk of electrical malfunctions. Choice B is incorrect because covering extension cords with a rug can lead to overheating and increase the risk of fire. Choice C is also incorrect as tingling sensations around a cord indicate an electrical hazard, not proper functioning. Choice D is incorrect as pulling the cord to remove a plug can damage the cord, leading to potential electrical dangers.
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