ATI RN
foundations of nursing test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A blood-soaked peripad weighs 900 g. The nurse would document a blood loss of _____ mL.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (900 mL) because the weight of 900 g corresponds to a blood loss of the same amount in milliliters. Blood density is close to that of water, so 1 g ? 1 mL. Therefore, a blood-soaked peripad weighing 900 g indicates a blood loss of 900 mL. Choice A (1800 mL) is incorrect as it doubles the weight instead of converting it to milliliters. Choice B (450 mL) is incorrect as it halves the weight. Choice D (90 mL) is incorrect as it divides the weight by 10, which is too small for the blood loss indicated.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is reviewing the physicians notes from the patient who has just left the clinic. The nurse learns that the physician suspects a malignant breast tumor. On palpation, the mass most likely had what characteristic?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Mobility. A malignant breast tumor typically lacks mobility due to its fixed attachment to surrounding tissues. This characteristic is concerning for malignancy as it suggests invasive growth. Incorrect answers: A: Nontenderness - Tenderness does not reliably indicate malignancy or benignancy. B: A size of 5 mm - Tumor size alone does not determine malignancy. C: Softness and a regular shape - Malignant tumors are often firm and irregular in shape.
Question 3 of 5
In determining malnourishment in a patient, which assessment finding is consistent with this disorder?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Malnourishment often leads to iron deficiency anemia, causing spoon-shaped nails (koilonychia). Step 2: Koilonychia is a classic sign of chronic malnutrition and iron deficiency. Step 3: Moist lips (A) and pink conjunctivae (B) are not specific to malnourishment. Step 4: Not easily plucked hair (D) is more related to hair health rather than malnutrition.
Question 4 of 5
A 60-year-old man presents at the clinic complaining that his breasts are tender and enlarging. The patient is subsequently diagnosed with gynecomastia. The patient should be assessed for the possibility of what causative factor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Medication adverse effects. Gynecomastia in a 60-year-old man is often caused by medications like spironolactone, cimetidine, and certain antipsychotics. To determine the causative factor, a thorough medication history review is crucial. Age-related physiologic changes (choice A) do not typically lead to gynecomastia in men. Poor nutrition (choice C) and fluid overload (choice D) are not common causes of gynecomastia in this context.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a group of patients. Which patient will the nurse seefirst?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the nurse should prioritize the patient who has been receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) infusing with the same tubing for 26 hours. This patient needs to be seen first to monitor for any potential complications or issues related to TPN administration. Choice A can be ruled out because 50 hours is longer than 26 hours. Choices C and D involve enteral feeding, which is important but generally less critical than TPN. Additionally, choice D has a shorter duration than choice B. Therefore, choice B is the most time-sensitive and critical patient to assess first.
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