jarvis physical examination and health assessment test bank

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chest pain and pleuritic breathing. This indicates possible complications like pleurisy or pleural effusion, requiring further evaluation. A: Persistent cough with sputum production is common in pneumonia. C: Shortness of breath is a typical symptom of pneumonia. D: Fever and chills are also common in pneumonia. However, chest pain and pleuritic breathing are more indicative of potential complications that may require immediate attention.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stop aspirin and begin apixaban 5 mg twice a day. The rationale is that for stroke risk reduction in nonvalvular atrial fibrillation, anticoagulation therapy with direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) like apixaban is preferred over antiplatelet therapy like aspirin. DOACs have been shown to be more effective in reducing stroke risk with a lower bleeding risk compared to warfarin. Choice A is incorrect as aspirin alone is not sufficient for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation. Choice B is incorrect as warfarin has more monitoring requirements and potential drug interactions compared to DOACs like apixaban. Choice D is incorrect as aspirin and apixaban together are not recommended due to increased bleeding risk.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine are neurotransmitters commonly associated with mood regulation. Medications that affect these neurotransmitters can lead to symptoms of depression as a side effect. B: Gabapentin is not primarily associated with mood regulation. C: Milnacipran is an SNRI used to treat depression, not cause it. D: Cortisol is a stress hormone, not a neurotransmitter directly linked to depression symptoms.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 3+. Bounding pulses indicate a 3+ strength on a scale of 0 to 3. This reflects increased blood flow or pressure in the arteries, which can be a sign of conditions like peripheral vascular disease. A strength of 0 indicates no palpable pulse, 1+ is weak and thready, 2+ is normal, and 3+ is bounding. In this case, the patient's history of coronary artery disease and diabetes may contribute to the increased blood flow, leading to bounding pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the strength of the pulses based on the given assessment findings.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Referral for biofeedback training in pelvic muscle exercise. Biofeedback training helps Ms. J improve her pelvic muscle control, which can address her urinary leakage issue. It is specifically tailored to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, which can help with urinary incontinence. This option is appropriate for Ms. J as she has already tried Kegel exercises without success. Option A: Bladder training focuses on scheduling toilet trips and gradually increasing the time between trips. It may not be as effective for Ms. J's specific issue with leakage during physical activity. Option C: Solifenacin is a medication for overactive bladder symptoms, which may not be the best approach for Ms. J who has stress urinary incontinence. Option D: Topical estrogen is used for menopausal symptoms and genitourinary atrophy, which may not directly address Ms. J's issue with urinary leakage during physical activity.