Nursing Process Test Bank

Questions 68

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Nursing Process Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 78 year old male has been working on his lawn for two days, although the temperature has been above 90 degree F. he has been on thiazide diuretics for hypertension. His lab values are K 3.7 mEq/L, Na 129 mEq/L, Ca 9 mg/dl, and Cl 95 mEq/L. What would be a priority action for this man?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor for fatigue, muscle weakness, restlessness, and flushed skin. The patient is at risk for dehydration due to the combination of high temperature, age, and thiazide diuretic use. Thiazide diuretics can lead to electrolyte imbalances, including hypokalemia, which can cause symptoms such as muscle weakness and fatigue. Monitoring for signs of dehydration and electrolyte imbalances is crucial in this scenario to prevent complications. A: Making sure he drinks 8 glasses of water a day is not the priority as he is already at risk for dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. C: Hyperchloremia is not a common concern in this scenario based on the given lab values. D: Neurologic changes may occur in severe cases of electrolyte imbalances but monitoring for physical symptoms such as fatigue and muscle weakness is more relevant at this stage.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse understands that for the parathyroid hormone to exert its effect, what must be present?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Increased calcium level. Parathyroid hormone functions to increase blood calcium levels. When calcium levels are low, the parathyroid gland releases PTH to stimulate the release of calcium from bones and increase calcium absorption from the intestines and kidneys. This helps to maintain normal calcium levels in the blood. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because decreased phosphate level, functioning thyroid gland, and adequate vitamin D level are not direct requirements for the action of parathyroid hormone.

Question 3 of 5

A patient was rushed to the ER because of difficulty in urination. He was diagnosed then as a cse of benign prostate hyperthropy (BPH) and was advised by the doctor to undego transurethral resection of prostate (TURP). Based on the urgency of the surgery, the nurse classifies this condition as:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: emergency. In this scenario, the patient is experiencing difficulty in urination due to benign prostate hyperplasia (BPH), a condition that can lead to serious complications like acute urinary retention. Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) is a surgical procedure that is used to relieve the obstruction caused by BPH. Given the urgency of the situation and the potential for acute complications, the surgery needs to be performed immediately to prevent further harm to the patient's health. Classifying this condition as an emergency ensures prompt intervention and prioritizes the patient's well-being. Summary: - B: C.urgent (not correct): While the surgery is time-sensitive, it does not require immediate intervention like in an emergency situation. - C: elective (not correct): Elective surgeries are planned in advance and are not typically performed in urgent situations like this one. - D: required (not correct): While the surgery is necessary for the patient's condition

Question 4 of 5

The nurse, in assessing the adequacy of a client's fluid replacement during the first 2 to 3 days following full- thickness burns to the trunk and right thigh, would be aware that the most significant data would be obtained from recording

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Urinary output every hour. This is because assessing urinary output is crucial for monitoring fluid balance in burn patients. Adequate urine output indicates proper fluid replacement, while decreased output may indicate dehydration. Recording weights daily (choice A) may be important but not as immediate and specific as urinary output. Blood pressure every 15 minutes (choice B) is too frequent and not directly related to fluid replacement in this context. Monitoring peripheral edema every 4 hours (choice D) is not as reliable as urinary output for assessing fluid status.

Question 5 of 5

Laboratory studies indicate a client�s blood pressure level is 185mg/dl. Two hours have passed since the client ate breakfast. Which test would yield the most occlusive diagnostic information about the client�s glucose utilization?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: A 6-hour glucose tolerance test. This test involves measuring blood glucose levels at specific intervals after consuming a glucose solution, providing a comprehensive assessment of glucose utilization over time. This test is particularly useful in evaluating how the body processes glucose after a meal and can help diagnose conditions such as diabetes. A: A fasting blood glucose test would not provide a comprehensive picture of glucose utilization over time since it only measures glucose levels in a fasted state. B: A test of serum glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months but does not directly assess glucose utilization after a meal. D: A test for urine ketones is used to detect ketones in the urine, which can indicate diabetic ketoacidosis but does not directly measure glucose utilization.

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