Physical Assessment Nursing Practice Questions

Questions 28

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Physical Assessment Nursing Practice Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 58-year-old man comes to your office complaining of bilateral back pain that now awakens him at night. This has been steadily increasing for the past 2 months. Which one of the following is the most reassuring in this patient with back pain?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this patient with bilateral back pain that awakens him at night, the most reassuring finding is that the pain is bilateral. Bilateral symptoms are less likely to be associated with red flags such as malignancy or infection compared to unilateral symptoms. While back pain in individuals over the age of 50, pain at night, and pain lasting more than 1 month are concerning features, the fact that the pain in this patient is bilateral provides some reassurance. However, further evaluation is still warranted to determine the exact cause of the pain and appropriate management.

Question 2 of 5

You are examining a patient with emphysema in exacerbation and are having difficulty hearing his heart sounds. What should you do to obtain a good examination?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In a patient with emphysema, lung hyperinflation can make it difficult to hear heart sounds anteriorly. Listening posteriorly, especially between the scapulae, can often provide a clearer auscultation of the heart sounds due to reduced interference from lung sounds. The posterior approach can also help avoid any abdominal sounds that might obscure the cardiac sounds when auscultating in the epigastrium. It is important to make sure the patient is in a comfortable position for better examination, and in this case, listening posteriorly would be the best choice for assessing heart sounds in a patient with emphysema in exacerbation.

Question 3 of 5

Alexandra is a 28-year-old editor who presents to the clinic with abdominal pain. The pain is a dull ache, located in the right upper quadrant, that she rates as a 3 at the least and an 8 at the worst. The pain started a few weeks ago, it lasts for 2 to 3 hours at a time, it comes and goes, and it seems to be worse a couple of hours after eating. She has noticed that it starts after eating greasy foods, so she has cut down on these as much as she can. Initially it occurred once a week, but now it is occurring every other day. Nothing makes it better. From this description, which of the seven attributes of a symptom has been omitted?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The description provided by Alexandra includes information about the location (right upper quadrant), intensity (3 to 8 on a scale), duration (2 to 3 hours), periodicity (coming and going, worse after eating), exacerbating factors (greasy foods), frequency (initially once a week, now every other day), and aggravating factors (nothing makes it better). However, there is no mention of any associated manifestations such as nausea, vomiting, fever, or other symptoms that may be occurring alongside the abdominal pain. Associated manifestations are important for a comprehensive assessment and differential diagnosis of the symptom.

Question 4 of 5

Dakota is a 14-year-old boy who just noticed a rash at his ankles. There is no history of exposure to ill people or other agents in the environment. He has a slight fever in the office. The rash consists of small, bright red marks. When they are pressed, the red color remains. What should you do?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Dakota's presentation of a rash with small, bright red marks that do not fade when pressed (non-blanching) along with a slight fever raises concern for a serious condition such as meningococcal infection. Non-blanching rashes, especially when associated with fever, can be a sign of meningococcal sepsis, a life-threatening condition that requires urgent medical attention. Admission to the hospital is warranted for close monitoring, further evaluation, and initiation of appropriate treatment if needed. It is important to err on the side of caution in such cases to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

Question 5 of 5

Abby is a newly married woman who is unable to have intercourse because of vaginismus. Which of the following is true?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Option D, "Psychosocial reasons may cause this condition," is true. Vaginismus is a condition characterized by involuntary contractions of the muscles around the vaginal entrance, which can make sexual intercourse painful, difficult, or impossible. In many cases, this condition is linked with psychological factors such as anxiety, fear, past trauma, or relationship issues. These psychological factors can lead to the muscles tightening up in anticipation of pain or discomfort during intercourse, hence causing vaginismus. With appropriate psychological interventions like counseling, therapy, or relaxation techniques, individuals experiencing vaginismus can often overcome the condition and engage in pain-free intercourse.

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