Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Non-mobile mass with irregular edges. A non-mobile mass with irregular edges is more likely to be cancerous as it indicates potential infiltration into surrounding tissues. This finding raises suspicion for malignancy as cancerous lumps tend to have irregular shapes due to their invasive nature. In contrast, options A and B describe characteristics of benign masses, such as mobile, soft, and easily delineated. Option D indicates no palpable lymph nodes, which does not directly correlate with the characteristics of the breast lump. Therefore, option C is the most concerning and indicative of a potentially cancerous lesion based on the assessment findings provided.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the patient's Body Mass Index (BMI) indicates obesity, putting them at higher risk for surgical complications. Obesity is associated with increased risks of infections, delayed wound healing, respiratory issues, and cardiovascular problems post-surgery. Monitoring this patient closely is crucial. Choice A is less likely to have increased surgical complications due to age and condition. Choice C, a 12-year-old, is less likely to have significant surgical complications compared to adults. Choice D, a 17-year-old with gallstones, may have risks but the BMI of the patient in choice B indicates a higher risk.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the right side weakness indicates a lesion in the left hemisphere of the brain. The brain's motor functions are contralaterally controlled, meaning the left hemisphere controls the right side of the body. Therefore, a right-sided weakness suggests a lesion in the left hemisphere. The other choices are incorrect because expressive aphasia is associated with left hemisphere lesions, judgment of distance and proprioception are more related to parietal lobe lesions, and orientation to time and space is not directly linked to right-sided weakness.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A is correct: 1. Enalapril maleate is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. 2. ACE inhibitors like enalapril maleate block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. 3. By inhibiting the formation of angiotensin II, enalapril maleate decreases the levels of angiotensin II. 4. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, so decreasing its levels leads to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: - Choice B: Enalapril maleate primarily dilates arterioles by decreasing angiotensin II levels, not veins. - Choice C: Enalapril maleate does not directly adjust extracellular volume; it primarily affects the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. - Choice D: Enalapril maleate

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because it demonstrates an understanding of the key factors in managing hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS), which include avoiding dehydration and being aware of changes in urination, thirst, and hunger. This statement shows awareness of the importance of maintaining hydration and recognizing early signs of worsening symptoms. Choice B is incorrect as consuming sugary soda can exacerbate the condition by further increasing blood sugar levels. Choice C is incorrect because while monitoring blood glucose levels is important, it is not the primary method of preventing HHNS. Choice D is incorrect because consuming high-carbohydrate snacks can contribute to elevated blood glucose levels, which is counterproductive in managing HHNS.