ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Final Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 50-year-old female was diagnosed with sideroblastic anemia. Which of the following assessment findings would most likely occur?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Bronze-colored skin.' Sideroblastic anemia is characterized by excess iron deposition, leading to bronze-colored skin. This occurs due to the abnormal accumulation of iron in tissues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because sideroblastic anemia does not typically present with decreased iron levels, normochromic erythrocytes, or aplastic bone marrow.
Question 2 of 5
A teacher in a preschool is diagnosed with giardiasis. Which of the following medications will be administered to treat the diarrhea and abdominal distention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Metronidazole (Flagyl) is the drug of choice for treating giardiasis, which is a common cause of diarrhea and abdominal distention. Sulfasalazine (Choice A) is used to treat inflammatory bowel disease. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Choice C) is commonly used for urinary tract infections and Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia. Doxycycline (Choice D) is commonly used to treat various bacterial infections but is not the first-line treatment for giardiasis.
Question 3 of 5
A patient is prescribed zanamivir (Relenza) to treat influenza B. The patient has a history of asthma. For which of the following symptoms should the nurse assess?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bronchospasm. Zanamivir (Relenza) is an inhaled medication used to treat influenza by reducing the severity and duration of symptoms. Patients with a history of asthma are at risk of bronchospasm as a potential side effect of zanamivir. Assessing for bronchospasm is crucial in this case to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Bradycardia, pneumonia, and pulmonary embolism are not commonly associated with zanamivir use in the treatment of influenza B, especially in a patient with a history of asthma.
Question 4 of 5
During a flu shot clinic, one of the questions the student nurse asks relates to whether the client has a history of Guillain-Barr� syndrome. The client asks, 'What is that?' How should the nursing student reply?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because Guillain-Barr� syndrome is an acute immune-mediated polyneuropathy that can lead to paralysis affecting movement on both sides of the body, and in severe cases, involving the respiratory muscles. Choice B is incorrect as it describes local swelling, not the systemic effects of Guillain-Barr� syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a degenerative disease affecting mobility, not an acute immune-mediated condition like Guillain-Barr� syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as it describes flu-like symptoms following a flu shot, which is not the same as Guillain-Barr� syndrome.
Question 5 of 5
During surgery, the anesthesia personnel notice the client is having a steady rise in end-tidal carbon dioxide level. At this time, the nurse anesthetist begins to assess the client for malignant hyperthermia. The initial (priority) assessment for this disorder may include:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: monitoring for muscle rigidity. Muscle rigidity is a hallmark sign of malignant hyperthermia, a life-threatening condition triggered by certain anesthetics. Monitoring for this sign is critical in the early identification of the condition. Choices A, C, and D are not the initial priority assessments for malignant hyperthermia. Measuring serum potassium levels, evaluating renal function, and checking arterial blood gases are not specific initial assessments for malignant hyperthermia and would not aid in its early identification.
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