Jarvis Physical Examination and Health Assessment Test Bank

Questions 81

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Jarvis Physical Examination and Health Assessment Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 49-year-old truck driver comes to the emergency room for shortness of breath and swelling in his ankles. He is diagnosed with congestive heart failure and admitted to the hospital. You are the student assigned to do the patient's complete history and physical examination. When you palpate the pulse, what do you expect to feel?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Small amplitude, weak. In congestive heart failure, the heart's ability to pump effectively is compromised, leading to decreased cardiac output. This results in a weakened pulse with reduced amplitude. Palpating a small, weak pulse in this patient is expected due to poor cardiac function. Choices A and C are incorrect because a large, forceful pulse is not expected in congestive heart failure, and a normal pulse may not reflect the compromised cardiac function. Choice D, bigeminal, refers to an abnormal rhythm characterized by every other heartbeat being premature and is not typically associated with congestive heart failure.

Question 2 of 5

A patient with a history of chronic smoking presents with a persistent cough and weight loss. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lung cancer. The patient's symptoms of chronic smoking, persistent cough, and weight loss are concerning for malignancy. Lung cancer is a common consequence of long-term smoking and can present with these symptoms. Chronic bronchitis (A) typically presents with cough and mucus production but not necessarily weight loss. Emphysema (C) is characterized by shortness of breath and is less likely to cause weight loss. Asthma (D) usually presents with wheezing and shortness of breath, not typically weight loss.

Question 3 of 5

What intervention does the American College of Rheumatology recommend as first-line therapy for osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, or something else?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Exercise and weight loss. The American College of Rheumatology recommends this intervention as first-line therapy for osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis due to its proven benefits in reducing pain, improving joint function, and overall quality of life. Exercise helps strengthen muscles around the joints, improve flexibility, and reduce stiffness. Weight loss can also alleviate pressure on the joints, especially in weight-bearing joints. A: Diagnostic workup to rule out rheumatoid arthritis - This is not the first-line therapy but rather a step in the diagnostic process. B: NSAID use at the lowest effective dose - While NSAIDs may help with pain management, they are not recommended as the first-line therapy due to potential side effects. C: Acetaminophen use up to 4 grams/day - Acetaminophen can be used for pain relief, but it is not as effective as exercise and weight loss in managing osteoarthritis or rheumatoid arthritis symptoms

Question 4 of 5

An 86-year-old man with no ADL deficits who has stopped driving because of macular degeneration is evaluated for a urinary tract infection associated with urinary retention. The consulting urologist places a Foley catheter and sends a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level that comes back 12 ng/mL. Three months later after the Foley has been removed and he has had a good response to tamsulosin, his PSA is still 10 ng/mL. What is the appropriate next step in managing this man�s prostate problem?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Repeat PSA in 6 months. In this case, the patient's PSA levels have decreased from 12 ng/mL to 10 ng/mL after treatment with tamsulosin and removal of the Foley catheter. Given the improvement in PSA levels, it is reasonable to monitor for further changes before considering invasive procedures like transrectal ultrasound and biopsy (choice A), which may not be necessary at this time. Empiric finasteride (choice B) is not indicated as the patient is already responding well to tamsulosin. A bone scan (choice C) is not necessary at this stage as there are no indications of metastasis. Therefore, repeating the PSA in 6 months allows for continued monitoring of the patient's prostate health without subjecting him to unnecessary procedures.

Question 5 of 5

Pregnant women are evaluated for syphilis with serology testing because:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because syphilis during pregnancy can lead to adverse outcomes for the fetus, such as spontaneous abortion or congenital syphilis. This is due to the ability of the Treponema pallidum bacterium to cross the placenta and infect the fetus. Testing pregnant women for syphilis helps identify and treat the infection early to prevent these complications. Choice B is incorrect because hormonal changes do not trigger activation of latent syphilis. Choice C is incorrect as syphilis can be transmitted to the fetus at any point during pregnancy, not just in the third trimester. Choice D is incorrect because while untreated syphilis can have various complications, neonatal respiratory distress is not a direct consequence of syphilis infection during pregnancy.

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