ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 32-year-old pregnant woman presents with painless vaginal bleeding at 10 weeks of gestation. On ultrasound, a gestational sac with no embryo is visualized within the uterus. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be responsible for these findings?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a missed abortion, the embryo has died, but the products of conception remain in the uterus, leading to the visualization of a gestational sac without an embryo on ultrasound. This is a type of missed miscarriage where the woman may not have any symptoms initially and the diagnosis is made during a routine ultrasound. The most common presenting symptom is painless vaginal bleeding. The absence of an embryo within the gestational sac can be confirmed through serial ultrasound examinations showing no fetal growth or cardiac activity. It is important for healthcare providers to provide appropriate counseling and management options to support the patient through this emotional experience.
Question 2 of 5
Patient Presley who is ordered for diagnostic pelvic ultrasound asks what preparation she' 11 take. Appropriate preparations for this procedure include_________.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: For a diagnostic pelvic ultrasound, one important preparation is to have the patient void or empty their bladder before the procedure. This allows for better visualization of the pelvic organs and structures during the ultrasound scan. A full bladder can obstruct the view and make it difficult to obtain accurate images. Therefore, it is essential for the patient to follow instructions to empty their bladder before the pelvic ultrasound to ensure the best results.
Question 3 of 5
Which medication will be prescribed to control and maintain the blood pressue of patients at normal level?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Amlodipine is a medication commonly prescribed to control and maintain blood pressure at normal levels. It belongs to a class of drugs known as calcium channel blockers, which work by relaxing and widening blood vessels, making it easier for the heart to pump blood around the body. This ultimately helps to lower blood pressure and reduce the workload on the heart, decreasing the risk of cardiovascular events like heart attacks and strokes. Lidocaine, Epinephrine, and Furosemide are not typically used for controlling and maintaining blood pressure within normal limits.
Question 4 of 5
A patient with suspected acute exacerbation of asthma presents with severe dyspnea, accessory muscle use, and inability to speak in full sentences. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for assessing the severity of the patient's asthma exacerbation and guiding management decisions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the scenario described, the patient is presenting with severe symptoms of acute exacerbation of asthma, including severe dyspnea, accessory muscle use, and inability to speak in full sentences. In such cases, the most appropriate intervention for assessing the severity of the asthma exacerbation and guiding management decisions is a clinical assessment using standardized severity scores.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following statements accurately describes the role of natural killer (NK) cells in the immune response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Natural killer (NK) cells play a vital role in the innate immune response by identifying and eliminating virus-infected cells, as well as tumor cells, without the need for prior exposure or activation. NK cells are able to detect abnormal cells by recognizing changes in the cell surface molecules, such as downregulation of MHC class I molecules. Once activated, NK cells release cytotoxic granules containing perforin and granzyme, leading to the destruction of the target cell. This direct killing mechanism is crucial for controlling viral infections and preventing the development of tumors. NK cells do not produce antibodies (option B), present antigens to T cells (option C), or release cytokines to recruit other immune cells (option D) as their primary function in the immune response.
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