Medical Microbiology Test Bank

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Wasserman test, IFT. The patient's symptoms of diffuse alopecia and Pinkus' sign are suggestive of secondary syphilis. The Wasserman test and Immunofluorescence Test (IFT) are used to detect antibodies against Treponema pallidum, the bacterium causing syphilis. This would confirm or rule out syphilis as the underlying cause of the patient's symptoms. Choice B (T.pallidum Immobilization Test) is similar to the Wasserman test but less commonly used. Choice C (Detection of the nasal mucous membrane for M.leprae) is irrelevant as leprosy does not present with the described symptoms. Choice D (Consultation of neuropathist) is premature without ruling out syphilis first. Thus, the Wasserman test, IFT should be the initial examination to investigate the likely cause of the patient's symptoms.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Define sexually transmitted infections (STIs) as infections primarily spread through sexual contact. Step 2: Understand that STIs can also be transmitted through non-sexual means like blood transfusions. Step 3: Recognize that choice C is incorrect as it limits STIs to only sexually transmitted infections. Step 4: Therefore, the correct answer is C as it does not encompass all possible modes of transmission for STIs. Summary: Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they all accurately describe the characteristics of sexually transmitted infections, while choice C is incorrect as it excludes other potential modes of transmission for STIs.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Metronidazole is a synthetic antiprotozoal drug commonly used for wound infection prevention. 2. It is highly effective against Helicobacter pylori, a bacterium that causes stomach ulcers. 3. Metronidazole works by disrupting DNA structure in bacteria, leading to their death. 4. Chingamin (Chloroquine) is an antimalarial drug, not effective against Helicobacter pylori. 5. Doxycycline hydrochloride is an antibiotic used for bacterial infections, not specifically for H. pylori. 6. Aciclovir is an antiviral drug used for herpes infections, not effective against H. pylori. Summary: Metronidazole is the correct answer as it is specifically effective against H. pylori and commonly used for wound infection prevention. Other choices are incorrect as they target different types of infections.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pulmonary tuberculosis. The presence of red bacilli stained with Ziehl-Nielsen method indicates acid-fast bacteria, which are characteristic of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the causative agent of tuberculosis. The size and appearance of the bacilli described match those of M. tuberculosis. Chronic pneumonia, along with the specific staining pattern, strongly suggests tuberculosis as the likely diagnosis. Explanation for other choices: A: Pneumococcal pneumonia is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, which would not show red bacilli on Ziehl-Nielsen staining. B: Pulmonary actinomycosis is caused by Actinomyces species, not acid-fast bacteria like M. tuberculosis. C: Pulmonary candidiasis is caused by Candida species, which are fungi and do not appear as red bacilli on staining.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: III, IV, V. 1. RNA viruses belong to Group III of the Baltimore classification system because their genetic material is single-stranded RNA. 2. They are also categorized under Group IV as they use reverse transcriptase to replicate their genetic material. 3. Finally, RNA viruses fall under Group V as they have an envelope derived from the host cell membrane. Therefore, options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not include all the correct groups that RNA viruses belong to according to the Baltimore classification system.