Test Bank Physical Examination and Health Assessment

Questions 27

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Test Bank Physical Examination and Health Assessment Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 21-year-old receptionist comes to your clinic, complaining of frequent diarrhea. She states that the stools are very loose and there is some cramping beforehand. She states this has occurred on and off since she was in high school. She denies any nausea, vomiting, or blood in her stool. Occasionally she has periods of constipation, but that is rare. She thinks the diarrhea is much worse when she is nervous. Her past medical history is not significant. She is single and a junior in college majoring in accounting. She smokes when she drinks alcohol but denies using any illegal drugs. Both of her parents are healthy. Her entire physical examination is unremarkable. What is most likely the etiology of her diarrhea?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The patient's history of frequent loose stools with cramping, occurring since high school and worsening during periods of nervousness, along with occasional constipation, is characteristic of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). IBS is a functional gastrointestinal disorder that presents with symptoms such as abdominal pain or discomfort, bloating, and altered bowel habits (diarrhea, constipation, or both) without any evidence of organic disease. The absence of systemic symptoms like fever, weight loss, or blood in the stool, as well as normal physical examination findings, also support the diagnosis of IBS in this case. This condition is often triggered or exacerbated by stress or anxiety. Monitoring stress levels, dietary modifications, and possibly prescription medications may help manage IBS symptoms in this patient.

Question 2 of 5

A 68-year-old retired banker comes to your clinic for evaluation of left shoulder pain. He swims for 30 minutes daily, early in the morning. He notes a sharp, catching pain and a sensation of something grating when he tries overhead movements of his arm. On physical examination, you note tenderness just below the tip of the acromion in the area of the tendon insertions. The drop arm test is negative, and there is no limitation with shoulder shrug. The patient is not holding his arm close to his side, and there is no tenderness to palpation in the bicipital groove when the arm is at the patient's side, flexed to 90 degrees, and then supinated against resistance. Based on this description, what is the most likely cause of his shoulder pain?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The description of the patient's left shoulder pain, with a sharp catching pain and a sensation of something grating during overhead movements, in addition to tenderness just below the tip of the acromion in the area of tendon insertions, is suggestive of calcific tendinitis. Calcific tendinitis occurs when calcium deposits form within a tendon, most commonly affecting the rotator cuff tendons. This condition can cause pain, tenderness, and limited range of motion, particularly with certain movements like overhead reaching. The negative drop arm test, lack of limitation with shoulder shrug, absence of tenderness to palpation in the bicipital groove, and the patient not holding his arm close to his side help differentiate calcific tendinitis from other shoulder pathologies like rotator cuff tendinitis, rotator cuff tear, and bicipital tendinitis.

Question 3 of 5

Linda is a 29-year-old who had excruciating pain which started under her lower ribs on the right side. The pain eventually moved to her lateral abdomen and then into her right lower quadrant. Which is most likely, given this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The progression of excruciating pain starting under the lower ribs on the right side, then moving to the lateral abdomen, and finally settling in the right lower quadrant is classic for appendicitis. Appendicitis is an inflammation of the appendix, a small tube-like structure attached to the cecum (beginning of the large intestine). The pain typically starts around the umbilicus and then migrates to the right lower quadrant, where the appendix is located. Other symptoms that may accompany appendicitis include fever, nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, and tenderness at McBurney's point (a specific area in the abdomen). It is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention to avoid complications such as perforation and peritonitis.

Question 4 of 5

He is afebrile and his cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are normal. On visualization of the anus you see no inflammation, masses, or fissures. Digital rectal examination reveals a smooth, enlarged prostate. No discrete masses are felt. There is no blood on the glove or on guaiac testing. An analysis of the urine shows no red blood cells, white blood cells, or bacteria. What disorder of the anus, rectum, or prostate is this most likely to be?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The clinical presentation described in the scenario is consistent with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). BPH is a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland, typically seen in older males. The findings of a smooth, enlarged prostate on digital rectal examination without discrete masses, along with the absence of other alarming signs such as blood in the urine or on examination, make BPH the most likely diagnosis in this case.

Question 5 of 5

Dawn is a 55-year-old woman who comes in today for her yearly wellness examination. You carefully perform the rectal examination in the lithotomy position and feel a mass against the bowel wall which is firm and immobile. Which of the following is most likely?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presence of a firm and immobile mass felt against the bowel wall during a rectal examination is concerning for a potential malignancy, such as colon cancer. Other conditions such as hemorrhoids or anal fissures are typically not associated with a mass that is firm and immobile. The "Valve of Houston" is a term that does not pertain to this scenario and is not a recognized medical entity. Therefore, the most likely diagnosis based on the given information is colon cancer, and further evaluation such as a colonoscopy would be warranted for definitive diagnosis and management.

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