ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A urine output of 20 ml/hour indicates severe dehydration and impaired renal function. This finding suggests a critical state where the kidneys are conserving water, leading to reduced urine output. Immediate intervention is required to restore fluid balance and prevent further complications associated with severe dehydration. Choice A, a heart rate of 110 beats per minute, may indicate dehydration but is not as severe as the critically low urine output. Choice B, a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg, can be seen in dehydration but is not as concerning as the extremely low urine output. Choice D, dry mucous membranes, is a common sign of dehydration but does not require immediate intervention compared to the severely reduced urine output.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to review the hemoglobin level before administering epoetin alfa (Epogen) to assess its effectiveness in stimulating red blood cell production. Hemoglobin level is a crucial indicator to monitor in clients with chronic renal failure receiving this medication. Choice A (Blood urea nitrogen) and Choice B (Creatinine clearance) are commonly monitored in renal failure but are not specifically relevant to assessing the effectiveness of epoetin alfa. Choice D (Serum potassium) is important to monitor due to potential imbalances in renal failure, but it is not directly related to evaluating the effectiveness of epoetin alfa.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide the client taking enalapril (Vasotec) is to report any persistent cough to their healthcare provider. Enalapril can cause a side effect of a persistent cough, and it is essential for the healthcare provider to be notified if this occurs to evaluate the need for a medication adjustment or change. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing potassium-rich foods is not specifically related to enalapril use; there is no requirement to take enalapril with a full meal, and avoiding grapefruit juice is more relevant for medications metabolized by the CYP3A4 enzyme, not typically for enalapril.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Placing the client in High Fowler's position is beneficial for individuals with left-sided heart failure experiencing dyspnea and orthopnea. This position helps to reduce venous return, decrease preload, and enhance respiratory function, thereby relieving the symptoms mentioned. Choice B, the supine position, is not recommended as it may exacerbate dyspnea and orthopnea by increasing preload. Choice C, the Trendelenburg position, is incorrect as it involves the feet being positioned higher than the head, which is not suitable for heart failure patients. Choice D, the Sims' position, is a lateral position used for rectal examination and is not indicated for relieving dyspnea and orthopnea in heart failure.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Pruritus is a common symptom in clients with cirrhosis due to bile salts accumulating in the skin. Applying lotion to the skin helps soothe the itching and can prevent skin breakdown. Acetaminophen can worsen liver damage in clients with cirrhosis as it is metabolized in the liver. Encouraging a high-protein diet is not directly related to relieving pruritus. Providing a warm bath may further dry the skin, exacerbating the itching. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention to help relieve pruritus in a client with cirrhosis is to apply lotion to the skin.