ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019

Questions 63

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ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019 Questions

Question 1 of 5

During the initial assessment of a client with a history of substance abuse admitted for detoxification, which intervention is most important?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the client's physical health status is the most critical intervention during the initial assessment of a client with a history of substance abuse admitted for detoxification. This evaluation helps identify and address any immediate health risks, such as withdrawal symptoms or medical complications, to ensure the client's safety and well-being during the detoxification process. Option A, obtaining a detailed substance use history, is important but not the most critical initially. Option B, establishing a trusting nurse-client relationship, is important but assessing physical health takes precedence. Option D, determining the client's readiness for change, is valuable but assessing physical health for immediate risks is the priority.

Question 2 of 5

A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed a low-protein diet. Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the diet?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels should be monitored to assess the effectiveness of a low-protein diet in clients with chronic kidney disease. BUN levels reflect the breakdown of protein in the body, and a low-protein diet aims to reduce BUN levels to lessen the workload on the kidneys. Therefore, monitoring BUN levels is crucial in managing kidney function and evaluating the impact of dietary modifications. Serum potassium, serum calcium, and creatinine clearance are important parameters to monitor in clients with chronic kidney disease, but they are not specifically indicative of the effectiveness of a low-protein diet. Serum potassium levels are crucial in assessing electrolyte balance, serum calcium levels are important for bone health and nerve function, and creatinine clearance reflects kidney function overall, not just the impact of a low-protein diet.

Question 3 of 5

A client with chronic renal failure is prescribed epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production. Therefore, in a client with chronic renal failure, an effective outcome of epoetin alfa therapy would be an improvement in hemoglobin levels. This indicates that the medication is working as intended by addressing anemia, a common complication of chronic renal failure. Increased urine output (choice A) is not directly related to the action of epoetin alfa. Decreased blood pressure (choice B) is not a primary expected outcome of epoetin alfa therapy. Stable potassium levels (choice D) are important but not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in this context.

Question 4 of 5

A client with a history of asthma is prescribed salmeterol (Serevent). Which instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed salmeterol (Serevent) is to use it twice daily for long-term control. Salmeterol is a long-acting bronchodilator that is not intended for acute asthma attacks or as-needed use for wheezing. Choice A is incorrect because salmeterol is not used for acute asthma attacks. Choice B is incorrect as salmeterol is not meant to replace the albuterol inhaler but rather used for long-term control. Choice D is incorrect because salmeterol should not be used as needed; it is a maintenance medication for asthma.

Question 5 of 5

A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. These tests help assess the clotting time and the desired anticoagulant effect of the medication. Monitoring PT and INR levels is crucial to ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications associated with warfarin therapy. Platelet count (Choice A) measures the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific for monitoring warfarin therapy. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice C) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) assesses the amount of fibrinogen in the blood and is not a specific test for monitoring warfarin therapy.

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