ATI LPN
LPN Pediatrics Questions
Question 1 of 5
What is the appropriate treatment for a responsive 4-year-old child with a mild airway obstruction, respiratory distress, a strong cough, and normal skin color?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: For a responsive 4-year-old child with a mild airway obstruction, respiratory distress, a strong cough, and normal skin color, the appropriate treatment includes providing supplemental oxygen and arranging for transport to a healthcare facility. Oxygen helps alleviate the respiratory distress, and transport ensures the child receives further evaluation and care by healthcare professionals. Back slaps and subdiaphragmatic thrusts are not recommended for a child with a mild airway obstruction and normal skin color, as these interventions are typically reserved for more severe cases of airway obstruction.
Question 2 of 5
A 4-year-old boy ingested an unknown quantity of drain cleaner. He is alert, has a patent airway, and has adequate breathing. You should:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When a child ingests a harmful substance like drain cleaner and remains alert with a patent airway and adequate breathing, the initial steps involve contacting poison control to guide further management. In this scenario, providing oxygen to support respiratory function is essential until definitive care is established. Activated charcoal and ipecac are not recommended in the management of ingested caustic substances like drain cleaner. Performing a head-to-toe exam can wait until the child's immediate respiratory needs are addressed and the poison control center has provided guidance on further management.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following signs is MOST indicative of inadequate breathing in an infant?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Expiratory grunting is a significant sign of inadequate breathing and respiratory distress in infants. It indicates that the infant is struggling to exhale properly, which can be a sign of various respiratory issues, including lung problems or airway obstruction. Monitoring and recognizing this sign promptly can help in providing timely interventions to support the infant's breathing and prevent further complications.
Question 4 of 5
A 30-year-old woman is 22 weeks pregnant with her first child. She tells you that her rings are not fitting as loosely as they usually do and that her ankles are swollen. Her blood pressure is 150/86 mm Hg. She is MOST likely experiencing:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The symptoms of swollen ankles, tight rings, and elevated blood pressure in a pregnant woman at 22 weeks gestation are concerning for preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and signs of organ damage, commonly seen with symptoms such as swelling (edema) and protein in the urine. It is crucial to monitor and manage preeclampsia promptly as it can lead to severe complications for both the mother and the baby.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following is NOT an appropriate treatment for an 18-year-old woman with severe vaginal bleeding?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Placing sterile dressings into the vagina is not an appropriate treatment for severe vaginal bleeding. The correct approach involves applying pressure to the external vaginal area to control bleeding, covering the vagina with a trauma dressing to help with compression, administering high concentrations of oxygen to support oxygenation, and keeping the patient warm with blankets to prevent hypothermia. Placing sterile dressings into the vagina can introduce foreign material, increase the risk of infection, and obstruct proper wound management, making it an incorrect treatment option in this scenario.
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