ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024 Questions
Question 1 of 5
What are the early signs of a pulmonary embolism?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chest pain, shortness of breath, and tachycardia. These are classic early signs of a pulmonary embolism. Chest pain may be sudden and sharp, worsened by deep breathing or coughing. Shortness of breath can be sudden and severe. Tachycardia (rapid heart rate) is another common symptom. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent typical early signs of a pulmonary embolism.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is reinforcing teaching about ways to reduce solid fat consumption with a client who has an elevated cholesterol level. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Choose lean cuts of beef.' Selecting lean cuts of beef is crucial in reducing solid fat consumption for individuals with high cholesterol levels. Lean cuts contain less saturated fat compared to fatty cuts, thus aiding in managing cholesterol levels. Option A is incorrect as oils with trans fats should be avoided since they contribute to unhealthy fats. Option C is not directly related to reducing solid fat consumption. Option D, while suggesting a leaner meat option, does not address the issue of solid fat consumption as directly as choosing lean cuts of beef.
Question 3 of 5
What are the key nursing interventions for a patient receiving diuretic therapy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor electrolyte levels and administer potassium as needed. Patients on diuretic therapy are at risk of electrolyte imbalances, particularly low potassium levels. Monitoring electrolytes and administering potassium as needed are crucial nursing interventions to prevent imbalances. Choice B is incorrect because restricting fluid intake and providing a low-sodium diet are not typically indicated for patients on diuretic therapy. Choice C is incorrect as encouraging oral fluids and increasing dietary potassium can exacerbate electrolyte imbalances in patients on diuretics. Choice D is incorrect as providing high-sodium foods would worsen electrolyte balance issues in patients on diuretic therapy.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following interventions is the best to improve the healing of a pressure ulcer for a client with a low serum albumin level?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Consulting a dietitian to create a high-protein diet plan is the best intervention for a client with a low serum albumin level to promote healing. This approach ensures that the client receives the specific nutrients needed for wound healing. Providing high-calorie, high-protein supplements (choice A) may not address the specific nutritional deficiencies of the client. Administering nutritional supplements (choice C) is vague and may not target the necessary nutrients for wound healing. Increasing IV fluids (choice D) is important for hydration but does not directly address the nutritional needs of the client to improve ulcer healing.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has a brainstem injury. The nurse should expect the client to exhibit which of the following findings?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decerebrate posturing. Decerebrate posturing is an abnormal body posture characterized by rigid extension of the arms and legs, which indicates severe brainstem injury affecting the midbrain and pons. This posture suggests dysfunction or damage to neural pathways controlling muscle tone. Choice B, hypervigilance, is not typically associated with brainstem injury but rather with increased alertness and arousal. Choice C, absence of deep tendon reflexes, is not a specific finding related to brainstem injury. Choice D, a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15, indicates a fully awake and alert state, which is not expected in a client with a brainstem injury.
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