ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia include muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias, making choice A correct. Hyperkalemia can lead to dangerous cardiac effects, and calcium gluconate is used to stabilize the heart by antagonizing the effects of potassium. Choices B, C, and D describe symptoms and interventions that are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. Confusion and bradycardia are not common in hyperkalemia, and insulin and glucose are used in hyperkalemia only under specific circumstances. Fatigue and irregular heart rate are vague symptoms, and diuretics are not the primary treatment for hyperkalemia. Nausea and vomiting are nonspecific symptoms and sodium bicarbonate is not indicated for the management of hyperkalemia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to establish a set routine for rising, hygiene, meals, short rest periods, and bedtime. By creating a structured daily schedule, the client's natural sleep-wake cycle can be regulated, helping to address the issue of daytime sleeping and nighttime wakefulness. Option A, asking for a strong sleep medicine, may not address the underlying cause and can have potential side effects in the elderly. Option C, engaging in exercises when drowsy, may not be suitable for someone with dementia and could disrupt sleep patterns further. Option D, promoting relaxation before bedtime, is helpful but may not be sufficient to address the client's significant sleep issue.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Filgrastim works by stimulating the production of white blood cells. Therefore, monitoring the white blood cell (WBC) count is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment. Choice B, serum potassium, is not directly affected by filgrastim therapy. Choice C, hemoglobin level, is important but not the primary indicator of filgrastim's effectiveness. Choice D, serum creatinine, is unrelated to the action of filgrastim and would not reflect its effectiveness.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct first step before administering a blood transfusion is to verify that the client's blood type matches the blood product. This step is crucial to prevent transfusion reactions due to incompatibility. Choice A is incorrect because blood should not be administered through an IV push for a blood transfusion. Choice C is incorrect because it is not necessary for the client to eat before a blood transfusion. Choice D is incorrect because administering a diuretic is not a standard practice before starting a blood transfusion.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Persistent cough. Enalapril is known to cause a persistent dry cough as a side effect. This adverse reaction is due to the accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs, leading to irritation and cough. The nurse should report this symptom to the provider for further evaluation and possible medication adjustment. Choices A, B, and D are not directly associated with enalapril use. While a blood pressure of 150/80 mm Hg is elevated and should be monitored, it is not a direct side effect of enalapril. Swelling in the legs and a heart rate of 72 beats per minute are also not typically related to enalapril use and should be assessed but are not the priority findings to report in this scenario.