PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Sit upright for at least 30 minutes after taking it.' Alendronate can cause esophageal irritation and to reduce the risk of this side effect, clients should be instructed to sit upright for at least 30 minutes after administration. Choice A is incorrect as alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, usually in the morning, at least 30 minutes before the first food, beverage, or medication of the day. Choice C is incorrect because alendronate should not be taken at bedtime, as the client should remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking it. Choice D is incorrect as antacids can interfere with the absorption of alendronate, so they should not be taken together.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin levels. Ferrous sulfate is used to treat iron deficiency anemia by increasing the body's iron stores. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is crucial as it reflects the effectiveness of the treatment in improving the client's anemia. Serum potassium levels (Choice A) are typically not directly affected by ferrous sulfate. Liver function tests (Choice C) and blood glucose levels (Choice D) are not routinely monitored when a client is receiving ferrous sulfate unless there are specific indications or pre-existing conditions that warrant such monitoring.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Clients with chronic kidney disease are at risk for hyperkalemia due to impaired potassium excretion. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys are unable to effectively excrete potassium, leading to its accumulation in the blood. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Hypoglycemia (Choice C) refers to low blood sugar levels and is not directly related to chronic kidney disease. Hyponatremia (Choice D) is a condition characterized by low sodium levels and is not a typical concern in chronic kidney disease.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When preparing to administer clindamycin, assessing the patient's allergy history is crucial as clindamycin can cause severe allergic reactions. This assessment helps identify any potential risks related to allergies and enables the healthcare provider to take necessary precautions. Vital signs, renal function, and liver function are also important assessments before administering medications, but in this case, checking for any history of allergies takes priority due to the risk of severe allergic reactions associated with clindamycin.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for signs of infection.' Methotrexate can suppress the immune system, making the client more susceptible to infections. Educating the client to monitor for signs of infection is crucial for early detection and management. Choice A is incorrect because methotrexate is not a pain reliever; it is commonly used to treat conditions like cancer, rheumatoid arthritis, and psoriasis. Choice C is incorrect because methotrexate is usually recommended to be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D is incorrect because methotrexate is known to be harmful during pregnancy and should not be used by pregnant individuals as it can cause birth defects.