ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who had a stroke and is showing signs of dysphagia. Which finding indicates this condition?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Abnormal mouth movements are a key sign of dysphagia, a condition commonly seen in stroke clients. Dysphagia refers to difficulty swallowing, which can manifest as abnormal movements of the mouth during eating or drinking. In stroke patients, dysphagia increases the risk of aspiration, where food or liquids enter the airway instead of the esophagus, leading to potential complications such as pneumonia. Choices B, C, and D are not directly indicative of dysphagia. Inability to stand without assistance may indicate motor deficits, paralysis of the right arm suggests a neurological impairment, and loss of appetite can be a non-specific symptom in many conditions but does not specifically point to dysphagia.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client 1 hour after birth and notes a boggy uterus located 2 cm above the umbilicus. What should the nurse do first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A boggy uterus located 2 cm above the umbilicus suggests uterine atony, which is a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage. The initial intervention in this situation is to massage the fundus. Fundal massage helps the uterus contract, promoting hemostasis and preventing excessive bleeding. Taking vital signs or assessing lochia are important actions but are secondary to addressing uterine atony. Administering oxytocin IV bolus is often done after fundal massage to further enhance uterine contractions.
Question 3 of 5
A healthcare professional is teaching a client about reducing the risk of urinary tract infections (UTIs). Which factor increases the risk of UTI?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Using perfumed toilet paper can irritate the urinary tract and increase the risk of UTI, so it should be avoided. Wearing underwear with a cotton crotch (Choice A) is a preventive measure as cotton allows for better air circulation and reduces moisture, lowering the risk of UTIs. Wiping from front to back (Choice B) helps prevent the introduction of bacteria from the anal region to the urinary tract. Urinating after intercourse (Choice D) can help flush out bacteria introduced during sexual activity, thereby reducing the risk of UTIs.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which result should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: WBC 3,000/mm�. A WBC count of 3,000/mm� indicates neutropenia, which is a condition characterized by a low level of white blood cells, specifically neutrophils. Neutropenia increases the risk of infection and requires immediate medical attention, especially in clients undergoing chemotherapy. Reporting this result to the provider promptly is crucial for further evaluation and intervention. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not pose an immediate risk to the client's health. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL, platelet count of 250,000/mm�, and serum sodium of 140 mEq/L are all normal values and would not typically require immediate reporting unless there are specific concerns related to the individual client's condition.
Question 5 of 5
When caring for a client with a sealed radiation implant, which action should be included in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to wear a dosimeter film badge while in the client's room. This is crucial for monitoring radiation exposure levels when caring for a client with a sealed radiation implant. Option A is incorrect as removing dirty linens after double bagging them is not directly related to radiation safety. Option C is incorrect as there is no specific guideline to limit visitors to 1 hour per day for clients with sealed radiation implants. Option D is incorrect as the distance of family members from the client is not a primary safety measure when dealing with sealed radiation implants.
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