ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with myocardial infarction suddenly becomes tachycardic, shows signs of air hunger, and begins coughing frothy, pink-tinged sputum. The nurse listens to breath sounds, expecting to hear which breath sounds bilaterally?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is exhibiting signs of pulmonary edema, which can occur as a complication of myocardial infarction. Crackles are typically heard in cases of pulmonary edema, characterized by fluid accumulation in the lungs. These crackling sounds are heard during inspiration and sometimes expiration and are an indication of fluid-filled alveoli. Therefore, when assessing the client with these symptoms, the nurse would expect to hear crackles bilaterally. Rhonchi, which are coarse rattling respiratory sounds, are typically associated with conditions like bronchitis or pneumonia, not pulmonary edema. Wheezes are high-pitched musical sounds heard in conditions like asthma or COPD, not commonly present in pulmonary edema. Diminished breath sounds suggest decreased airflow or lung consolidation, not typical findings in pulmonary edema.
Question 2 of 5
The client needs instruction on using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). Which instruction should be given?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct technique for using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) involves exhaling fully before inhaling deeply while pressing the canister to ensure effective delivery of the medication. Choice A is incorrect as exhaling should precede inhaling. Choice C is incorrect as taking two short breaths is not part of the correct technique. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to hold the breath for a specific time after inhaling the medication.
Question 3 of 5
A client with a history of chronic heart failure is being discharged. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to weigh yourself daily and report a weight gain of 2 pounds or more in a day. This instruction is crucial because daily weights help in early detection of fluid retention, a common complication in heart failure. Monitoring weight is essential for managing heart failure and preventing exacerbations. Choice B is incorrect because fluid restriction may be necessary in some cases of heart failure, but a general limit of 2000 mL per day is not appropriate without individual assessment. Choice C is incorrect as increasing salt intake can worsen fluid retention and exacerbate heart failure symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because while exercise is beneficial for heart health, vigorous exercise may not be suitable for all heart failure patients and should be tailored to their specific condition.
Question 4 of 5
A client with a history of angina pectoris complains of substernal chest pain. The nurse checks the client's blood pressure and administers nitroglycerin 0.4 mg sublingually. Five minutes later, the client is still experiencing chest pain. If the blood pressure is still stable, what should the nurse do next?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a client with angina pectoris continues to experience chest pain despite initial nitroglycerin administration and stable blood pressure, the appropriate next step is to administer another nitroglycerin tablet. This helps to further dilate coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart muscle and relieving chest pain. Applying oxygen via nasal cannula (Choice B) may be necessary if the client displays signs of respiratory distress or hypoxemia, but in this case, the priority is addressing the unresolved chest pain. Calling for a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) (Choice C) is important to assess for any changes in the client's cardiac status, but administering another nitroglycerin tablet takes precedence in managing the ongoing chest pain. Waiting an additional 5 minutes before giving a second nitroglycerin tablet (Choice D) may delay symptom relief and potentially worsen the client's condition if the chest pain persists.
Question 5 of 5
The client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial when a client is on warfarin therapy. These tests assess the clotting ability of the blood and help determine the appropriate dosage of warfarin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting events. PT and INR values within the therapeutic range indicate the effectiveness of warfarin in managing atrial fibrillation. Choice B, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it is more commonly used to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Choice C, complete blood count (CBC), does not directly assess the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Choice D, fibrinogen level, is not a primary test for monitoring warfarin therapy; it is more relevant in assessing conditions like disseminated intravascular coagulation.
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