LPN Pharmacology Practice Questions

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Administering ceftriaxone in a large muscle is crucial for proper absorption and to reduce the risk of pain or tissue irritation. Intramuscular administration of ceftriaxone helps achieve optimal therapeutic levels in the bloodstream for the treatment of the pelvic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is not recommended as ceftriaxone should not be administered as a bolus over 5 minutes. Choice B is irrelevant because the question is about the administration route, not the reconstitution process. Choice C is also irrelevant as it does not pertain to the administration but to the quality of the reconstituted medication.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia due to its effects on the heart's electrical conduction system. Monitoring for a slow heart rate is crucial as it indicates potential toxicity. Hypertension, hyperglycemia, and insomnia are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Hypertension is more commonly seen in other conditions, hyperglycemia is not a typical sign of digoxin toxicity, and insomnia is not a recognized symptom of digoxin toxicity.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Grapefruit juice should be avoided while taking verapamil as it can increase drug levels and the risk of side effects. The interaction between grapefruit juice and verapamil can lead to higher concentrations of the medication in the bloodstream, potentially causing adverse effects. Orange juice, coffee, and milk do not have significant interactions with verapamil. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to avoid grapefruit juice to ensure the safe and effective use of verapamil.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take is to check the client's status and lead placement. This step is crucial to ensure that the alarm is not triggered by a simple issue such as lead displacement. Calling a code blue (choice A) is premature without assessing the client first. Contacting the healthcare provider (choice B) can be done after ruling out basic causes for the alarm. Pressing the recorder button (choice D) is not as urgent as checking the client's status and lead placement in this scenario.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to review the medication actions and interactions. Interferon alfa-2a and ribavirin combination therapy for hepatitis C can lead to neuropsychiatric side effects, including depression. By assessing the medication actions and interactions, the nurse can identify if the depression is a known side effect of the medications, and further intervention or adjustment of the treatment plan may be required to address the client's emotional well-being. Recommending mental health counseling (choice A) may be necessary but should come after ensuring that the depression is not solely caused by medication side effects. Assessing the client's daily activity level (choice C) and providing information about a support group (choice D) are important interventions but addressing the medication's potential contribution to the depression takes precedence.