ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
What should a healthcare professional prioritize when managing a client with delirium?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When managing a client with delirium, the priority should be to identify the underlying cause of the delirium. Delirium can result from various triggers such as infections, medication side effects, or metabolic imbalances. By determining the root cause, healthcare professionals can provide targeted treatment and improve outcomes. Administering sedative medication (Choice A) could exacerbate delirium as these drugs can worsen confusion. While providing a low-stimulation environment (Choice B) is beneficial, it is not as critical as identifying the cause. Controlling behavioral symptoms with medication (Choice D) should only be considered after identifying and addressing the underlying cause of delirium.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has a calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct! A calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL indicates hypocalcemia. Hypocalcemia can lead to increased neuromuscular excitability, manifesting as tingling of the extremities. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect findings associated with other electrolyte imbalances or conditions and are not typically related to hypocalcemia. Constipation is commonly seen in hypokalemia, absent deep-tendon reflexes are associated with hypermagnesemia, and nausea and vomiting are more indicative of hypercalcemia.
Question 3 of 5
A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has received a preoperative dose of morphine. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 90% is below the expected reference range and could indicate respiratory depression, a serious side effect of morphine. This finding requires immediate attention as it may lead to hypoxia. Nausea (choice A) is a common side effect of morphine but does not pose an immediate threat. A urinary output of 20 mL/hr (choice B) may indicate decreased renal perfusion but is not as critical as respiratory compromise. A respiratory rate of 14/min (choice D) is within the normal range and does not suggest immediate danger.
Question 4 of 5
What is the process for taking a telephone order from a provider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct process for taking a telephone order from a provider involves reading back the information for accuracy. This step ensures that the order is correctly understood and reduces the risk of errors. While listing patient information (Choice A) is essential, it does not encompass the complete process of verifying the order. Having a witness listen to the order (Choice C) may not always be practical or necessary, as direct verification is more efficient. Writing down the order and following up (Choice D) is not as crucial as the immediate read-back process, which allows for real-time clarification and confirmation.
Question 5 of 5
A client is postoperative following a rhinoplasty, and a nurse is contributing to the plan of care. Which of the following interventions should the nurse recommend?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Instructing the client to avoid the Valsalva maneuver is crucial after rhinoplasty to reduce strain and the risk of bleeding. Administering humidified oxygen may not be directly related to postoperative care for rhinoplasty. Restricting fluids is not typically necessary unless specifically indicated by the healthcare provider. Applying heat packs to the nose is contraindicated after rhinoplasty as it can increase the risk of bleeding and should be avoided.
Similar Questions
Join Our Community Today!
Join Over 10,000+ nursing students using Nurselytic. Access Comprehensive study Guides curriculum for ATI-LPN and 3000+ practice questions to help you pass your ATI-LPN exam.
Subscribe for Unlimited Access