ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Administering glucagon is the recommended intervention for severe hypoglycemia, especially when the patient is unconscious or unable to consume oral glucose. Glucagon helps increase blood glucose levels rapidly by stimulating the release of stored glucose from the liver. Providing a source of glucose (Choice B) can be challenging if the patient is unable to swallow or unconscious, making glucagon a more effective option. Monitoring blood sugar levels (Choice C) and assessing vital signs (Choice D) are important aspects of managing hypoglycemia but are not the immediate intervention for severe cases where prompt elevation of blood glucose levels is necessary.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to pour warm water over the client's perineum. This intervention helps stimulate urination after catheter removal by providing warmth and promoting relaxation of the muscles. Assessing for bladder distention after 2 hours (Choice A) is not the initial intervention to facilitate voiding. Encouraging the client to try urinating in a sitting position (Choice B) may be uncomfortable if the client is struggling to void. Restricting the client's fluid intake (Choice D) is not appropriate as it can further exacerbate the issue by concentrating the urine.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct nursing intervention for a patient receiving anticoagulant therapy is to monitor INR levels and check for signs of bleeding. Monitoring the INR levels helps assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulant therapy, while checking for bleeding is essential due to the increased risk associated with anticoagulants. Choice B is incorrect as antiplatelet therapy is not the standard treatment for patients on anticoagulant therapy. Choice C is incorrect as providing additional anticoagulation is not a direct nursing intervention in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect because administering aspirin, an antiplatelet medication, along with anticoagulants can increase the risk of bleeding and is generally avoided.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When managing a client with delirium, the priority should be to identify the underlying cause of the delirium. Delirium can result from various triggers such as infections, medication side effects, or metabolic imbalances. By determining the root cause, healthcare professionals can provide targeted treatment and improve outcomes. Administering sedative medication (Choice A) could exacerbate delirium as these drugs can worsen confusion. While providing a low-stimulation environment (Choice B) is beneficial, it is not as critical as identifying the cause. Controlling behavioral symptoms with medication (Choice D) should only be considered after identifying and addressing the underlying cause of delirium.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: A bulging posterior fontanelle is a sign of increased intracranial pressure in infants, not a common symptom after a subdural hematoma. In the context of a subdural hematoma, a decreased level of consciousness is more indicative of a complication as it can be a sign of worsening brain function due to increased pressure on the brain from the collection of blood in the subdural space. Increased appetite and high-pitched cry are not typically associated with complications of a subdural hematoma.