ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Irrigating the NG tube with sterile water is the most appropriate strategy for a client with an NG tube experiencing nausea and decreased gastric secretions. This intervention helps in relieving blockages within the tube and can help reduce nausea by ensuring proper drainage. Increasing the suction pressure (Choice A) can lead to complications and should not be done without healthcare provider orders. Turning the client onto their side (Choice C) is a general measure for patient comfort but does not directly address the issue with the NG tube. Replacing the NG tube with a new one (Choice D) is not necessary unless there are specific indications like tube damage or dislodgement.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Furrows in the tongue.' Dehydration commonly presents with furrows in the tongue due to decreased oral moisture. This physical finding indicates dehydration as the tongue loses moisture and becomes dry. Choice A, 'Bradycardia,' is not typically associated with dehydration; instead, tachycardia may be present as a compensatory mechanism. Elevated blood pressure, as mentioned in choice B, is not a typical finding in dehydration; in fact, dehydration often leads to a decrease in blood pressure. Polyuria, as in choice D, is more commonly associated with conditions like diabetes mellitus or diabetes insipidus, rather than dehydration.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to apply ice to the affected knee for 24-48 hours. Applying ice helps to reduce inflammation and pain after knee surgery, promoting healing. Choice A is incorrect because heat is not recommended postoperatively, as it can increase swelling. Choice B is incorrect because pillows should be placed under the knee to keep it elevated. Choice C is incorrect because early mobilization is essential for preventing complications such as blood clots.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit potassium and phosphorus intake for a client with chronic kidney disease. Excessive potassium and phosphorus can be harmful to individuals with compromised kidney function. Option A is incorrect because increasing potassium-rich foods can exacerbate hyperkalemia in individuals with kidney disease. Option C may not be ideal as excessive protein intake can put extra strain on the kidneys. Option D is not the priority; while adequate fluid intake is important, it is not the primary focus when teaching dietary considerations for chronic kidney disease.