ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because Type 1 diabetes necessitates insulin therapy, whereas Type 2 diabetes is managed with lifestyle modifications and oral agents. Choice B is incorrect because Type 1 diabetes does not use oral agents as a primary treatment. Choice C is incorrect as it describes the pathophysiology of diabetes types rather than their treatments. Choice D is incorrect because Type 2 diabetes management involves more than just insulin and includes lifestyle changes and oral medications.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct! When managing a patient with ascites, monitoring abdominal girth is crucial as it helps assess the extent of fluid retention. Administering diuretics is also essential to help reduce fluid buildup in the body, thereby managing ascites effectively. Option B is incorrect as pain relief is not the primary intervention for ascites. Option C is incorrect as restricting fluid intake can worsen the condition by causing dehydration and further fluid imbalances. Option D is incorrect as administering albumin and checking electrolyte levels are not first-line interventions for managing ascites; these interventions may be considered in specific cases but are not the initial steps in managing ascites.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first when noting excessive lochia discharge in a client who delivered a full-term newborn 16 hours ago is to perform a fundal massage. Fundal massage helps stimulate uterine contractions, which in turn reduces bleeding in postpartum clients. Administering pain medication (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation as addressing the excessive lochia discharge is crucial to prevent complications. Checking the baby's heart rate (Choice C) is important but not the first action to manage the mother's condition. Applying an ice pack (Choice D) is not appropriate for managing excessive lochia discharge; fundal massage is the initial intervention to address this issue effectively.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to pour warm water over the client's perineum. This intervention can help stimulate voiding after catheter removal by promoting relaxation of the perineal muscles and increasing sensory input to the bladder. Assessing for bladder distention after 6 hours (Choice A) is important but not the initial intervention for difficulty voiding. Encouraging the client to use a bedpan in the supine position (Choice B) may not be effective in promoting voiding. Restricting the client's intake of oral fluids (Choice C) is not appropriate as hydration is important for urinary function.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client not to get out of bed. Lorazepam is a sedative that can cause drowsiness and impair coordination. By instructing the client not to get out of bed, the nurse helps prevent falls or injuries that could occur due to the medication's sedative effects. Choice A is incorrect as keeping the client awake may not be necessary and could lead to unnecessary discomfort. Choice C is incorrect as encouraging the client to drink fluids is not directly related to the administration of lorazepam. Choice D is incorrect as early ambulation is not safe immediately after administering a sedative medication.