ATI LPN
ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019 Questions
Question 1 of 5
The healthcare provider is caring for a client with Guillain-Barr� syndrome. Which assessment finding requires the healthcare provider's immediate action?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Decreased vital capacity is the most critical assessment finding in a client with Guillain-Barr� syndrome as it indicates respiratory compromise. This requires immediate intervention to ensure adequate ventilation and prevent respiratory failure, a common complication of this syndrome. Monitoring and maintaining respiratory function are vital in these clients to prevent complications such as respiratory distress, hypoxia, and respiratory failure. Loss of deep tendon reflexes and ascending weakness are typical manifestations of Guillain-Barr� syndrome but do not require immediate action compared to compromised respiratory function. New onset of confusion may be a concern but is not as immediately life-threatening as decreased vital capacity.
Question 2 of 5
A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed a low-protein diet. Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the diet?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels should be monitored to assess the effectiveness of a low-protein diet in clients with chronic kidney disease. BUN levels reflect the breakdown of protein in the body, and a low-protein diet aims to reduce BUN levels to lessen the workload on the kidneys. Therefore, monitoring BUN levels is crucial in managing kidney function and evaluating the impact of dietary modifications. Serum potassium, serum calcium, and creatinine clearance are important parameters to monitor in clients with chronic kidney disease, but they are not specifically indicative of the effectiveness of a low-protein diet. Serum potassium levels are crucial in assessing electrolyte balance, serum calcium levels are important for bone health and nerve function, and creatinine clearance reflects kidney function overall, not just the impact of a low-protein diet.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a spinal cord injury. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent autonomic dysreflexia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: To prevent autonomic dysreflexia in clients with spinal cord injuries, it is crucial to ensure the client's bladder is emptied regularly. Bladder distention is a common trigger for autonomic dysreflexia in these clients. Keeping the bladder empty helps prevent the complications associated with autonomic dysreflexia, such as dangerously high blood pressure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Restricting fluid intake can lead to dehydration, keeping the room warm is not directly related to preventing autonomic dysreflexia, and limiting high-fiber foods is not a primary intervention for this condition.
Question 4 of 5
A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lowered cholesterol levels. Atorvastatin is a medication commonly prescribed to lower cholesterol levels, which is crucial in reducing the risk of further cardiovascular events, including myocardial infarction (MI). Monitoring cholesterol levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of atorvastatin therapy and its role in preventing future cardiac complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased blood pressure, decreased heart rate, and improved liver function are not direct indicators of atorvastatin's effectiveness in a client with a history of MI.
Question 5 of 5
A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. These tests help assess the clotting time and the desired anticoagulant effect of the medication. Monitoring PT and INR levels is crucial to ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications associated with warfarin therapy. Platelet count (Choice A) measures the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific for monitoring warfarin therapy. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice C) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) assesses the amount of fibrinogen in the blood and is not a specific test for monitoring warfarin therapy.
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