ATI LPN
Pharmacology for LPN Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the correct laboratory test to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy, especially with heparin. A prolonged aPTT indicates effective anticoagulation, reducing the risk of further clot formation in the client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The other options, such as complete blood count (CBC), serum electrolytes, and liver function tests, do not directly assess the therapeutic effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is B.
Question 2 of 5
The client with a history of angina pectoris reports chest pain unrelieved by nitroglycerin. Which action should the nurse take next?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a client with a history of angina pectoris reports chest pain unrelieved by nitroglycerin, it may indicate a myocardial infarction, also known as a heart attack. In this situation, the nurse should immediately notify the healthcare provider to ensure prompt evaluation and appropriate intervention. Delay in seeking medical attention for chest pain unrelieved by nitroglycerin can be life-threatening, as it might be a sign of a more serious cardiac event. Administering another dose of nitroglycerin (Choice A) without further evaluation can be risky, as the client's condition may require a different intervention. Having the client lie down and rest (Choice C) or encouraging deep breaths (Choice D) are not appropriate actions in this scenario where a more serious cardiac event needs to be ruled out.
Question 3 of 5
The client with chronic stable angina is prescribed a beta blocker. The nurse is reinforcing instructions. What instruction should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to advise the client to report a pulse rate below 60 beats per minute. Beta blockers are known to lower heart rate, and a pulse rate below 60 beats per minute may indicate bradycardia, a condition that requires medical attention. Option A, 'Take the medication with a meal,' is incorrect because beta blockers don't necessarily need to be taken with food. Option C, 'Discontinue the medication if dizziness occurs,' is incorrect because abrupt cessation of beta blockers can lead to rebound hypertension and other adverse effects. Option D, 'Avoid drinking grapefruit juice,' is unrelated to beta blockers' mechanism of action or side effects.
Question 4 of 5
The healthcare provider is caring for a client with hypertension who is receiving a beta blocker. The provider should monitor for which potential side effect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Beta blockers are medications that can cause bradycardia by slowing down the heart rate. It is essential to monitor for this side effect in clients receiving beta blockers, as it can lead to serious complications such as decreased cardiac output and hypotension. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because beta blockers are not expected to cause tachycardia (fast heart rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), or hyperglycemia (high blood sugar levels).
Question 5 of 5
The client is receiving furosemide (Lasix) for heart failure. What potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial because hypokalemia can result in cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hypoglycemia.
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