ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client at risk for pressure ulcers is to turn and reposition the client every 2 hours. This helps relieve pressure on bony prominences, improving circulation and reducing the risk of pressure ulcer development. Applying heat to the affected area (Choice A) can increase the risk of skin breakdown. Placing the client in a prone position (Choice B) can also increase pressure on certain areas, leading to pressure ulcers. Providing the client with a bedpan every 4 hours (Choice D) is not directly related to preventing pressure ulcers.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potential complications to report. Including potential complications in the discharge report is crucial for ensuring proper follow-up care. This information helps the client and their caregivers to be aware of warning signs that may indicate a worsening condition or the need for immediate medical attention. Choices A, C, and D are important aspects of discharge planning, but providing a list of potential complications to report takes precedence as it directly impacts the client's safety and well-being post-discharge.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to suction the tracheostomy. When a client with a tracheostomy is experiencing respiratory distress, the priority intervention is to clear the airway by suctioning the tracheostomy to remove secretions that may be obstructing the air passage. Administering a bronchodilator (Choice A) may be considered if bronchospasm is present, but the immediate focus should be on clearing the airway. Notifying the physician (Choice C) is important but should not delay the immediate intervention of suctioning. Increasing the oxygen flow rate (Choice D) may provide temporary relief, but addressing the root cause of the distress by suctioning is the priority.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The key considerations for managing a patient with COPD include airway management, ensuring adequate oxygenation, promoting smoking cessation, and incorporating pulmonary rehabilitation. While airway management is crucial for maintaining patency and preventing exacerbations, oxygen therapy helps improve oxygen levels in the blood. Smoking cessation is essential to slow down disease progression and reduce exacerbation risk. Pulmonary rehabilitation plays a vital role in enhancing exercise tolerance and overall quality of life for COPD patients. Therefore, while all options are important in managing COPD, airway management is the most critical aspect.