PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Benzodiazepines can increase intraocular pressure, which is why they must be used cautiously in patients with glaucoma. In clients with this condition, benzodiazepines can potentially worsen symptoms and lead to further complications involving the eyes. Therefore, administering benzodiazepines to a client with glaucoma should be done with caution. Choices B, C, and D are not directly contraindicated with benzodiazepines, making them less likely to cause harm compared to administering to a client with glaucoma.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Prednisone is known to cause hyperglycemia by increasing blood glucose levels. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to detect and manage any potential hyperglycemic effects of prednisone. While prednisone can also affect serum potassium levels and liver function, the priority monitoring parameter in this case is blood glucose levels. Monitoring heart rate is not directly associated with prednisone administration, making it a less relevant parameter to monitor in this scenario.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Dizziness.' Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker used for hypertension, can cause dizziness due to its blood pressure-lowering effects. It is crucial for clients to report dizziness to their healthcare provider as it may indicate hypotension. Dry cough (choice A) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, rash (choice C) may be seen in allergic reactions, and headache (choice D) is a less common side effect of amlodipine.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: No action is needed at this time. Sedation from opiates commonly decreases as the body adjusts to the medication. It is a positive sign that the sedation has resolved, indicating the client is tolerating the current dosage well. Initiating additional non-pharmacological pain management techniques (Choice A) is unnecessary since the current pain management regimen is effective. Notifying the provider for a dosage adjustment (Choice B) is premature and not indicated when the sedation has resolved. Contacting the provider to request an alternate method of pain management (Choice D) is excessive and not warranted in this situation where the client is no longer sedated and the current pain management plan is effective.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It can cause dependency.' Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine known to cause dependency, so it is crucial for clients to be informed about this potential risk. Choice B is incorrect as combining lorazepam with alcohol can lead to increased sedation and other adverse effects. Choice C is incorrect because lorazepam, like any medication, can have side effects such as drowsiness, dizziness, or confusion. Choice D is also incorrect as lorazepam is a sedative-hypnotic medication, not a stimulant.