ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which result should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: WBC 3,000/mm�. A WBC count of 3,000/mm� indicates neutropenia, which is a condition characterized by a low level of white blood cells, specifically neutrophils. Neutropenia increases the risk of infection and requires immediate medical attention, especially in clients undergoing chemotherapy. Reporting this result to the provider promptly is crucial for further evaluation and intervention. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not pose an immediate risk to the client's health. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL, platelet count of 250,000/mm�, and serum sodium of 140 mEq/L are all normal values and would not typically require immediate reporting unless there are specific concerns related to the individual client's condition.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client 4 hours postoperative following a thyroidectomy. The client reports fullness in the throat. What should the nurse assess for?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is B: Hemorrhage. Fullness in the throat post-thyroidectomy can indicate postoperative bleeding, a critical complication that requires immediate assessment and intervention. Choice A, Hypocalcemia, is incorrect because it does not typically present with fullness in the throat. Choice C, Hypoxia, is not directly related to the symptom described and is not the primary concern in this situation. Choice D, Hypothyroidism, is also incorrect as it is a long-term condition and unlikely to manifest suddenly 4 hours postoperatively with throat fullness.
Question 3 of 5
A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has severe dehydration. Which finding indicates effective treatment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A flat anterior fontanel indicates effective treatment for dehydration in infants. Dehydration often causes sunken fontanels, so when the anterior fontanel becomes flat, it suggests that rehydration has occurred. Sunken anterior fontanel (Choice A) is a sign of dehydration, not effective treatment. Tenting skin turgor (Choice B) is also a sign of dehydration, indicating poor skin turgor. Hyperpnea (Choice D) is increased depth and rate of breathing and is not directly related to the hydration status of the client.
Question 4 of 5
A client with chronic renal failure needs dietary instructions. Which of the following should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to restrict protein intake. In chronic renal failure, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products, so limiting protein helps reduce the buildup of waste in the body. Increasing calcium intake (Choice A) is not typically necessary unless there is a specific deficiency. Providing a diet high in potassium (Choice B) is contraindicated as potassium levels need to be monitored and controlled in renal failure. Increasing fluid intake (Choice D) may be necessary depending on the individual's condition, but restricting protein intake is a more critical dietary instruction for clients with chronic renal failure.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new prescription for furosemide. Which client statement indicates a need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Furosemide is a diuretic that does not require a reduction in fish consumption. Therefore, the statement 'I will limit my intake of fish' indicates a misunderstanding of dietary considerations. Choices A, B, and C are all appropriate actions related to furosemide therapy. Taking pills with food or milk can help reduce stomach upset, daily weight monitoring is crucial due to the diuretic effect of furosemide, and notifying the nurse about muscle cramps is important as it can be a sign of electrolyte imbalance, a potential side effect of furosemide.
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