ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is checking laboratory results for a client. Which of the following laboratory findings indicates hypervolemia?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urine specific gravity of 1.001 is low and indicates dilute urine, which is a sign of fluid overload (hypervolemia). Choice A, serum sodium 138 mEq/L, is within the normal range and does not indicate hypervolemia. Choice C, serum calcium 10 mg/dL, is not typically used to diagnose hypervolemia. Choice D, urine pH 6, is also not a specific indicator of hypervolemia.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Lip-smacking is a symptom of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol, characterized by involuntary movements of the face and jaw. Agranulocytosis (Choice B) is a rare but serious side effect of some medications, characterized by a dangerously low white blood cell count. Clang association (Choice C) is a thought disorder characterized by the association of words based on sound rather than meaning. Alopecia (Choice D) refers to hair loss, which is not a known long-term side effect of haloperidol.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has a nasogastric (NG) tube and is receiving enteral feedings. The client reports feeling nauseated. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a client with a nasogastric tube reports feeling nauseated is to check the client's bowel sounds. This assessment helps the nurse evaluate for possible complications, such as a blockage or decreased gastric motility, that could be causing the nausea. Administering an antiemetic (Choice A) should not be the first action without assessing the underlying cause of the nausea. Slowing the rate of the feeding (Choice C) may be appropriate but is not the priority until further assessment is done. Placing the client in a supine position (Choice D) is not typically indicated for managing nausea in this situation.
Question 4 of 5
A client with lactose intolerance, who has eliminated dairy products from the diet, should increase consumption of which of the following foods?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Spinach is the correct answer because it is a good source of calcium, which is important for clients with lactose intolerance who are not consuming dairy products. Peanut butter, ground beef, and carrots do not provide as much calcium as spinach and are not the best choices for meeting the calcium needs of clients with lactose intolerance.
Question 5 of 5
A client has developed a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a client with a pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism can lead to impaired gas exchange, causing hypoxemia. Administering oxygen helps to maintain adequate oxygenation levels. Thoracentesis is not indicated for a pulmonary embolism, as it is a procedure to remove fluid or air from the pleural space, not a treatment for embolism. Elevating the client's lower extremities is not a priority in the management of a pulmonary embolism. Administering anticoagulant therapy is important in the treatment of pulmonary embolism to prevent further clot formation, but it is not the first intervention. Oxygen administration takes precedence to address the immediate oxygenation needs of the client.
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