ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when caring for a client in Buck's traction is to ensure the weights hang freely. This is essential to maintain proper alignment and ensure the effectiveness of Buck's traction. Removing the weights (Choice A) would be incorrect and could compromise the treatment. Increasing the traction force (Choice C) can lead to excessive pressure and potential harm to the client. Loosening the ropes (Choice D) would also be inappropriate as it can disrupt the traction's effectiveness and alignment.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct answer: The most appropriate management for a patient with congestive heart failure is to administer diuretics to help remove excess fluid and monitor fluid balance. Diuretics help reduce the workload on the heart and alleviate symptoms of fluid overload. Choice B is incorrect because patients with congestive heart failure are usually advised to limit sodium intake and carefully monitor fluid intake. Choice C is incorrect because although oxygen therapy may be necessary in certain cases, it is not the primary management for congestive heart failure. Pain relief is not a primary intervention for this condition. Choice D is incorrect because bronchodilators are not the first-line treatment for congestive heart failure. Encouraging mobility is important, but administering diuretics and monitoring fluid balance take precedence in managing this condition.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Disorganized speech. Disorganized speech is a hallmark symptom of schizophrenia, characterized by impaired thought processes that lead to incoherent, disjointed communication. All-or-nothing thinking (Choice A) is more commonly associated with cognitive distortions seen in conditions like anxiety disorders. Euphoric mood (Choice B) is not a typical finding in schizophrenia, as individuals with this disorder often display a flat or blunted affect. Hypochondriasis (Choice D) involves a preoccupation with having a serious illness and is not a primary symptom of schizophrenia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The signs and symptoms of opioid withdrawal include nausea, sweating, and increased heart rate. Methadone is commonly used to manage opioid withdrawal symptoms by alleviating them. Choice B, managing with naloxone, is incorrect as naloxone is primarily used for opioid overdose reversal, not withdrawal. Choice C, managing with clonidine, is incorrect as clonidine is used to manage some symptoms of withdrawal, such as anxiety, agitation, and hypertension, but not hallucinations. Choice D, managing with benzodiazepines, is incorrect as benzodiazepines are not typically used as first-line treatment for opioid withdrawal; they may be considered in specific cases but are not a standard approach.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate response when a client with chronic kidney disease asks about fluid restrictions is to inform them that limiting fluid intake may be necessary to prevent fluid overload. This is crucial in managing the condition and preventing complications such as edema and electrolyte imbalances. Choice A is incorrect as fluid restrictions are commonly advised for clients with chronic kidney disease. Choice C is partially correct as fluid restrictions are indeed based on lab results and daily weights, but the primary goal is to prevent fluid overload. Choice D is incorrect because fluid restrictions are not limited to just during dialysis; they are often recommended throughout the day to manage the condition.