ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has mild anxiety. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In mild anxiety, the client is expected to have a heightened perceptual field. This means that their perception is increased, enhancing their awareness and ability to concentrate. Feelings of dread (Choice A) are more common in moderate to severe anxiety. Rapid speech (Choice B) and purposeless activity (Choice C) are more indicative of moderate to severe anxiety where the individual may exhibit signs of agitation and restlessness.
Question 2 of 5
A client in respiratory distress who is on oxygen is being cared for by a nurse. What is the most appropriate short-term goal?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because maintaining oxygen saturation of 90% is a specific, measurable short-term goal that ensures adequate oxygenation. Choice A is not a goal focused on the client's physiological status but rather on the equipment. Choice B is related to activities of daily living and does not address the respiratory distress issue. Choice C is subjective and may not reflect the actual physiological improvement in the client's condition.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client with pericarditis. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A paradoxical pulse is a sign of cardiac tamponade, a life-threatening complication of pericarditis that requires immediate intervention. It results from decreased cardiac output due to increased pressure in the pericardial sac. Reporting this finding promptly allows for timely treatment to prevent further deterioration. Dependent edema and substernal chest pain are common in pericarditis but are not as urgent as a paradoxical pulse. A pericardial friction rub is a classic finding in pericarditis and indicates inflammation but is not as critical as a paradoxical pulse.
Question 4 of 5
A client had a pituitary tumor removed. Which of the following findings requires further assessment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increased urinary output greater than fluid intake can indicate diabetes insipidus, a common complication after pituitary surgery. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the excretion of a large volume of dilute urine, leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. This finding requires immediate assessment and intervention. Choice A, a Glasgow scale score of 15, indicates normal neurological functioning. Choice B, blood drainage on dressing measuring 3 cm, may require monitoring but is not a priority over the potential complication of diabetes insipidus. Choice C, a report of dry mouth, is a common complaint postoperatively and can be managed with oral care measures.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is preparing to teach a client with chronic renal failure. Which dietary instruction is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to restrict protein intake for a client with chronic renal failure. In renal failure, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products. Excessive protein intake can lead to the accumulation of waste products, increasing the workload on the kidneys. Therefore, restricting protein intake is essential to prevent further kidney damage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Increasing calcium intake is not specifically indicated for chronic renal failure. Increasing potassium intake can be dangerous in renal failure as impaired kidneys may not be able to excrete excess potassium. Increasing protein intake is contraindicated in chronic renal failure as it can worsen kidney function and increase the accumulation of waste products.
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