ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023

Questions 74

ATI LPN

ATI LPN Test Bank

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Questions

Question 1 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a sign of digoxin toxicity?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin, a medication used to treat heart failure, works by slowing down the heart rate and increasing the force of heart contractions. Excessive levels of digoxin can lead to toxicity, causing bradycardia (slow heart rate), among other symptoms. Tachycardia (fast heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure) are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Increased appetite is not a recognized sign of digoxin toxicity; instead, gastrointestinal symptoms like nausea, vomiting, and anorexia are more common.

Question 2 of 5

Which nursing intervention is essential for a client diagnosed with heart failure?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's weight daily to assess fluid balance in clients with heart failure. This intervention helps healthcare providers evaluate fluid retention or loss, which is crucial in managing heart failure. Choice A is incorrect because excessive fluid intake can worsen heart failure symptoms by causing fluid overload. Choice C is incorrect because increasing sodium intake can lead to fluid retention, exacerbating heart failure. Choice D is incorrect as limiting fluid intake excessively can also be harmful in heart failure management, potentially leading to dehydration.

Question 3 of 5

A client has a prescription for ranitidine 150 mg PO BID. Available is ranitidine syrup 15 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer each day?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: To administer a total of 300 mg daily (150 mg PO BID), the nurse should give 20 mL of the syrup. This is calculated by dividing the total daily dose (300 mg) by the concentration of the syrup (15 mg/mL), which equals 20 mL. Choice B (15 mL), C (25 mL), and D (10 mL) are incorrect because they do not accurately calculate the required volume of syrup needed to deliver the prescribed dose.

Question 4 of 5

How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with hyperkalemia?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In managing hyperkalemia, it is essential to administer insulin and glucose to shift potassium into the cells, restrict potassium intake to prevent further elevation of serum levels, and monitor the ECG for signs of potassium-induced cardiac effects. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as all of the provided actions are important in the management of hyperkalemia. Choice A alone is not sufficient as it only addresses shifting potassium intracellularly without preventing further elevation. Choice B alone is not enough as it does not address the immediate need to lower serum potassium levels. Choice C alone is insufficient as it only monitors for cardiac effects without addressing potassium levels or shifting mechanisms.

Question 5 of 5

How should a healthcare professional assess and manage a patient with a tracheostomy?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct answer: Monitoring for signs of infection and ensuring airway patency is crucial in managing a patient with a tracheostomy. This involves observing for redness, swelling, or discharge at the stoma site, as well as assessing for any signs of respiratory distress. Choice B, suctioning airway secretions and providing humidified air, is important for maintaining airway hygiene but may not be the initial assessment priority. Choice C, inspecting the stoma site and cleaning with saline, is part of routine tracheostomy care but does not address immediate assessment and management needs. Choice D, providing education on tracheostomy care, is valuable but not the primary action required in the assessment and management of a patient with a tracheostomy.

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