PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet

Questions 89

ATI LPN

ATI LPN Test Bank

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for vancomycin 1 g IV every 12 hours. The client is scheduled to have the morning dose at 0700. The nurse should schedule the trough level to be drawn at which of the following times?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The trough level of vancomycin should be drawn just before the next dose is administered, typically about 30 minutes before the scheduled dose. Since the morning dose is at 0700, the trough level should be drawn at 1800. This timing ensures an accurate measurement of the lowest concentration of the drug in the client's system before the next dose is given. Choice A (2100) is too close to the next dose, choice B (900) is too early, and choice C (1300) is also too far from the next dose.

Question 2 of 5

A client with lactose intolerance, who has eliminated dairy products from the diet, should increase consumption of which of the following foods?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Spinach is the correct answer because it is a good source of calcium, which is important for clients with lactose intolerance who are not consuming dairy products. Peanut butter, ground beef, and carrots do not provide as much calcium as spinach and are not the best choices for meeting the calcium needs of clients with lactose intolerance.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with chronic kidney disease should limit their intake of phosphorus because high phosphorus levels can lead to bone disease and cardiovascular problems. Increasing foods high in potassium (choice B) is not recommended as it can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease. Decreasing intake of foods high in iron (choice C) is not specifically indicated for chronic kidney disease. Increasing calcium supplements (choice D) may not be necessary and can potentially lead to hypercalcemia in individuals with kidney disease.

Question 4 of 5

A nurse is planning an education session for a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following should the nurse plan to include when teaching the client to monitor for hypoglycemia?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis (sweating) is a classic symptom of hypoglycemia, along with shakiness, confusion, and irritability. These signs help indicate low blood sugar levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Polyuria (excessive urination), abdominal pain, and thirst are not typical symptoms associated with hypoglycemia. It is crucial for clients with type 1 diabetes mellitus to recognize the early signs of hypoglycemia to take prompt corrective action.

Question 5 of 5

A client with heart failure and a new prescription for furosemide is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to advise the client to eat foods that are rich in potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause the loss of potassium, leading to hypokalemia. Eating foods high in potassium can help prevent this electrolyte imbalance. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide does not directly interact with magnesium. Choice B is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent nighttime diuresis. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is a diuretic that typically leads to a decrease in blood pressure rather than an increase.

Similar Questions

Join Our Community Today!

Join Over 10,000+ nursing students using Nurselytic. Access Comprehensive study Guides curriculum for ATI-LPN and 3000+ practice questions to help you pass your ATI-LPN exam.

Call to Action Image