ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for vancomycin 1 g IV every 12 hours. The client is scheduled to have the morning dose at 0700. The nurse should schedule the trough level to be drawn at which of the following times?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The trough level of vancomycin should be drawn just before the next dose is administered, typically about 30 minutes before the scheduled dose. Since the morning dose is at 0700, the trough level should be drawn at 1800. This timing ensures an accurate measurement of the lowest concentration of the drug in the client's system before the next dose is given. Choice A (2100) is too close to the next dose, choice B (900) is too early, and choice C (1300) is also too far from the next dose.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has peptic ulcer disease (PUD) and is prescribed sucralfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sucralfate should be taken on an empty stomach, 1 hour before meals. This timing allows sucralfate to form a protective barrier over the ulcer, enhancing healing. Choice A is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken with an antacid. Choice C is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken with food. Choice D is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken at bedtime only; it is best absorbed on an empty stomach.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Lip-smacking is a symptom of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol, characterized by involuntary movements of the face and jaw. Agranulocytosis (Choice B) is a rare but serious side effect of some medications, characterized by a dangerously low white blood cell count. Clang association (Choice C) is a thought disorder characterized by the association of words based on sound rather than meaning. Alopecia (Choice D) refers to hair loss, which is not a known long-term side effect of haloperidol.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse working in a mental health facility observes a client who has bipolar disorder walk over to a table occupied by other clients and knock their game off the table. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Offering to go for a walk with the client helps redirect their energy in a non-confrontational way, avoiding escalation of aggressive behavior while promoting de-escalation.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is teaching a client who is pregnant about the amniocentesis procedure. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct statement to include in the teaching about amniocentesis is that the client should report if they experience any contractions after the procedure. This is crucial because contractions could indicate preterm labor or other complications following the amniocentesis. Choices A and B are incorrect as a full bladder is not required for the procedure, and magnesium sulfate is not typically given before an amniocentesis. Choice C is incorrect as the procedure usually takes about 20-30 minutes to complete.
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