PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a client with a nasogastric tube reports feeling nauseated is to check the client's bowel sounds. This assessment helps the nurse evaluate for possible complications, such as a blockage or decreased gastric motility, that could be causing the nausea. Administering an antiemetic (Choice A) should not be the first action without assessing the underlying cause of the nausea. Slowing the rate of the feeding (Choice C) may be appropriate but is not the priority until further assessment is done. Placing the client in a supine position (Choice D) is not typically indicated for managing nausea in this situation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Lip-smacking is a symptom of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol, characterized by involuntary movements of the face and jaw. Agranulocytosis (Choice B) is a rare but serious side effect of some medications, characterized by a dangerously low white blood cell count. Clang association (Choice C) is a thought disorder characterized by the association of words based on sound rather than meaning. Alopecia (Choice D) refers to hair loss, which is not a known long-term side effect of haloperidol.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid sitting in a chair for prolonged periods. This is important to prevent contractures from developing in the residual limb. Sleeping with a pillow under the residual limb can contribute to contracture formation rather than prevent it. While elevation of the limb is important for reducing swelling and promoting circulation, continuous elevation for 48 hours is not necessary and may not be practical. Applying lotion to the residual limb daily is generally not recommended immediately post-amputation as the wound site needs to heal without interference from lotions or creams.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT). Amoxicillin can potentiate the effects of warfarin, increasing the risk of bleeding. Monitoring the prothrombin time (PT) is crucial in this situation to assess the client's clotting ability. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because amoxicillin's interaction with warfarin does not directly impact serum potassium, serum sodium, or blood glucose levels.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: A pulse of 54/min indicates bradycardia, which is a side effect of propranolol, a beta-blocker. The medication should be withheld if the client's pulse drops below 60/min. The other findings (sodium levels, blood pressure, and potassium levels) are not directly indicative of the need to withhold propranolol.