ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for this client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's serum potassium levels to prevent hyperkalemia, which can be a potential side effect of spironolactone. Monitoring total bilirubin levels (A) is not specifically required for clients taking spironolactone. Urine ketones (B) are not directly influenced by spironolactone use. Platelet count (D) is not typically monitored in clients taking spironolactone.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is having difficulty voiding following the removal of an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to pour warm water over the client's perineum. This intervention can help stimulate voiding after catheter removal by promoting relaxation of the perineal muscles and increasing sensory input to the bladder. Assessing for bladder distention after 6 hours (Choice A) is important but not the initial intervention for difficulty voiding. Encouraging the client to use a bedpan in the supine position (Choice B) may not be effective in promoting voiding. Restricting the client's intake of oral fluids (Choice C) is not appropriate as hydration is important for urinary function.
Question 3 of 5
What is the priority for the nurse when caring for a patient with a chest tube?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The priority for the nurse when caring for a patient with a chest tube is to ensure tube patency and observe for air leaks. This is essential to prevent complications such as pneumothorax and ensure the patient's lung function. While maintaining sterile technique during dressing changes, monitoring drainage, recording output, and observing for signs of infection and subcutaneous emphysema are also important, ensuring tube patency takes precedence as it directly impacts the patient's respiratory status and overall safety.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has a calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct! A calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL indicates hypocalcemia. Hypocalcemia can lead to increased neuromuscular excitability, manifesting as tingling of the extremities. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect findings associated with other electrolyte imbalances or conditions and are not typically related to hypocalcemia. Constipation is commonly seen in hypokalemia, absent deep-tendon reflexes are associated with hypermagnesemia, and nausea and vomiting are more indicative of hypercalcemia.
Question 5 of 5
What is the priority in managing a client diagnosed with delirium?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The priority in managing a client diagnosed with delirium is to identify any underlying causes. Delirium can be caused by various factors such as infections, medications, or metabolic imbalances. By determining the root cause, healthcare providers can address the issue effectively and tailor the treatment plan accordingly. Administering anti-anxiety medication (Choice A) may help manage symptoms but does not address the underlying cause of delirium. Similarly, reducing environmental stimulation (Choice C) and encouraging deep breathing exercises (Choice D) may provide some relief, but they do not target the primary concern of identifying and addressing the underlying causes of delirium.
Similar Questions
Join Our Community Today!
Join Over 10,000+ nursing students using Nurselytic. Access Comprehensive study Guides curriculum for ATI-LPN and 3000+ practice questions to help you pass your ATI-LPN exam.
Subscribe for Unlimited Access